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A-level Revision Questions

What do coastal landscape systems consist of?

Flows of energy and material, and sediment cells.

What do coastal landscape systems consist of?
What physical factors influence coastal landscape systems?

Winds, waves, tides, geology and ocean currents.

What physical factors influence coastal landscape systems?
What are examples of sources of sediment supply?

Terrestrial, offshore, and human.

What are examples of sources of sediment supply?
What influences geomorphic processes?

Flows of energy and materials.

What influences geomorphic processes?
How are distinctive landforms formed?

By erosion and by deposition.

How are distinctive landforms formed?
Climate changes have occurred during a previous time period and resulted in what?

Sea-level fall and sea-level rise.

Climate changes have occurred during a previous time period and resulted in what?
Sea-level fall, sea-level rise and geomorphic processes influence the shaping of what?

Landforms. These landforms are influenced by processes associated with present and future climate and sea-level changes.

Sea-level fall, sea-level rise and geomorphic processes influence the shaping of what?
What is a sediment cell is generally regarded as.

A closed system, which suggests that no sediment is transferred from one cell to another.

What is a sediment cell is generally regarded as.
Outline the components of geology (lithology and structure).

Geology is characterised by lithology and structure.

Lithology describes the physical and chemical composition of rocks. Some rock types, such as clay, have a weak lithology, with little resistance to erosion, weathering or mass movements. This is because the bonds between the particles that make up the rock are weaker. Basalt is a rock that has a stronger lithology because it is made up of dense interlocking crystals.

Structure concerns the properties of individual rock types such as jointing, bedding and faulting. It also includes the permeability of rocks. In porous rocks water can be absorbed and stored - known as primary permeability. Carboniferous limestone is permeable but for reasons other than porosity. Water seeps into limestone because of its many joints. This is known as secondary permeability. The joints are enlarged easily by solution.

Outline the components of geology (lithology and structure).
What are the geomorphic processes?

Erosion, transportation, deposition and the two sub-aerial processes of weathering and mass movement.

What are the geomorphic processes?
List all 5 erosional processes.

The 5 erosional processes are abrasion, attrition, hydraulic action, wave pounding and solution.

List all 5 erosional processes.
Explain the erosional process of abrasion.

Abrasion (or corrasion) is when waves armed with rock particles scour the coastline; rock rubbing against rock.

Explain the erosional process of abrasion.
Explain the erosional process of attrition.

Attrition occurs when rock particles, transported by wave action, collide with each other and with coastal rocks and progressively become worn away. They become smoother and more rounded as well as smaller, eventually producing sand.

Explain the erosional process of attrition.
Explain the erosional process of hydraulic action.

Hydraulic action occurs when waves break against a cliff face, and air and water trapped in cracks and crevices becomes compressed. As the wave recedes the pressure is released, the air and water suddenly expands and the crack is widened. The average pressure exerted by breaking Atlantic Waves is 11,000 kg per m3.

Explain the erosional process of hydraulic action.
What is the average pressure exerted by breaking Atlantic Waves in hydraulic action?

The average pressure exerted by breaking Atlantic Waves is 11,000 kg per m3.

What is the average pressure exerted by breaking Atlantic Waves in hydraulic action?
Explain the erosional process of wave pounding.

Wave pounding occurs when the mass of a breaking wave exerts pressure on the rock causing it to weaken. Forces of as much as 30 tonnes per m2 can be exerted by high-energy waves.

Explain the erosional process of wave pounding.
Explain the erosional process of solution.

Solution (or corrosion) involves dissolving minerals like magnesium carbonate minerals in coastal rock. However, as the pH of sea water is invariably around 7 or 8 this process is usually of limited significance unless the water is locally polluted and acidic. Even then, only coastal rocks containing significant amounts of soluble minerals are likely to be affected by this.

Explain the erosional process of solution.
Name what the three types of weathering are.

Biological, chemical and physical (mechanical).

Name what the three types of weathering are.
Name what the two types of biological weathering are.

Tree roots and organic acids.

Name what the two types of biological weathering are.
Explain the biological weathering process tree roots.

Tree roots grow into cracks or joints within rocks and exert outward pressure. This operates in a similar way and with similar effects to freeze-thaw. When trees topple, their roots can also exert leverage on rock and soil, bringing them to the surface and exposing them to further weathering. Burrowing animals may have a similar effect.

Explain the biological weathering process tree roots.
Where would tree roots be most common?

Tree roots may be particularly significant on cliff tops and cliff faces.

Where would tree roots be most common?
Explain the biological weathering process organic acids.

Organic acids produced during the decomposition of plant and animal litter cause soil water to become more acidic and react with some minerals in a process called chelation. Blue-green algae can have a weathering effect, producing a shiny film of iron and manganese oxides on rocks. On shore platforms, molluscs may secrete acids which produce small surface hollows in the rock.

Explain the biological weathering process organic acids.
Name what the five types of chemical weathering are.

Oxidation, carbonation, solution, hydrolysis, hydration.

Name what the five types of chemical weathering are.
Explain the chemical weathering process of oxidation.

Some minerals in rocks react with oxygen, either in the air or in water. Iron is especially susceptible to this process. It becomes soluble under extremely acidic conditions and the original structure is destroyed. It often attacks the iron-rich cements that bind sand grains together in sandstone.

Explain the chemical weathering process of oxidation.
Explain the chemical weathering process of carbonation.

Rainwater combines with dissolved carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to produce a weak carbonic acid. This reacts with calcium carbonate in rocks such as limestone to produce calcium bicarbonate, which is soluble. This process is reversible and precipitation of calcite happens during evaporation of calcium rich water in caves to form stalactites and stalagmites.

Explain the chemical weathering process of carbonation.
Explain the chemical weathering process of solution.

Some salts are soluble in water. Other minerals, such as iron, are only soluble in very acidic water, with a pH of about 3. Any process by which a mineral dissolves in water is known as solution, although mineral specific processes, such as carbonation, can be identified.

Explain the chemical weathering process of solution.
Explain the chemical weathering process of hydrolysis.

This is a chemical reaction between rock minerals and water. Silicates combine with water, producing secondary minerals such as clay. Feldspar in granite reacts with hydrogen in water to produce kaolin (china clay).

Explain the chemical weathering process of hydrolysis.
Explain the chemical weathering process of hydration.

Water molecules added to rock minerals create new minerals of a larger volume. This happens when anhydrite takes up water to form gypsum. Hydration causes surface flaking in many rocks, partly because some minerals also expand by about 0.5% during the chemical change because they absorb water.

Explain the chemical weathering process of hydration.
Name what the four types of physical (mechanical) weathering are.

Freeze-thaw, pressure release, thermal expansion, salt crystallisation.

Name what the four types of physical (mechanical) weathering are.
Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of freeze-thaw.

Water enters cracks/joints and expands by nearly 10% when it freezes. In confined spaces this exerts pressure on the rock causing it to split or pieces to break off, even in very resistant rocks.

Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of freeze-thaw.
Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of pressure release.

When overlying rocks are removed by weathering and erosion, the underlying rock expands and fractures parallel to the surface. This is significant in the exposure of sub-surface rocks such as granite and is also known as dilatation. The parallel fractures are sometimes called pseudo-bedding planes.

Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of pressure release.
Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of thermal expansion.

Rocks expand when heated and contract when cooled. If they are subjected to frequent cycles of temperature change then the outer layers may crack and flake off. This is also known as insolation weathering, although experiments have cast doubt on its effectiveness unless water is present.

Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of thermal expansion.
Where is thermal expansion more likely to occur?

Where there is a large diurnal temperature range (difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures within 1 day).

Where is thermal expansion more likely to occur?
Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of salt crystallisation..

Solutions of salt can seep into the pore spaces in porous rocks. Here the salts precipitate, forming crystals. The growth of these crystals creates stress in the rock causing it to disintegrate. Sodium sulphate and sodium carbonate are particularly effective, expanding by about 300% in areas of temperatures fluctuating around 26-28ºC.

Explain the physical (mechanical) weathering process of salt crystallisation..
Describe the formation of each of the following landforms.

TIP: Effectively you are writing an 8 mark answer for each landform: Describe the landform, Formation - identify all process, and explain at least one in detail, Modification - identify all process, and explain at least one in detail, Located example, Diagram.

Describe the formation of each of the following landforms.
Name the 5 landforms of erosion.

Bays and Headlands, Caves; Arches; Stacks & Stumps, Cliffs, Shore platforms, Geos and Blowholes.

Name the 5 landforms of erosion.
Key terms to include when talking about Bays and Headlands.

Differential rates of erosion, concordant, discordant, wave refraction, orthogonals, friction, dissipated, AND refer to relevant geomorphic processes.

Key terms to include when talking about Bays and Headlands.
How do Bays and Headlands form? (8 marks)

Bays and headlands form adjacent to each other and are features of high energy discordant coastlines (at a right angle) where there are alternate bands of more and less resistant rock types resulting in differential erosion. The bays will form where there is less resistant rock, leaving more resistant rocks either side to protrude into the sea to form a headland. They are unlikely to form on concordant coastlines that run perpendicular to the waves.

This results in wave refraction as the wave bends around the headland and orthogonals converge. This process concentrates energy on the side of headlands and can result in notches, caves, arches etc forming. In bays, the othogonals diverge resulting in dissipation of energy (spreading out) which increasing rates of deposition (of sediment formed through the erosion of headland, and from off-shore, mass movement etc).

Types of erosion which are significant in formation and subsequent modification of bays and headlands are abrasion which is the wearing away of cliffs as particles carried by waves rub against the rocks, and wave pounding where the force of waves (up to 30 tonnes per sq m) exerts pressure on rocks causing them to weaken over time.

Weathering, a sub-aerial process, will also play a role in the formation and modification of bays and headlands as these processes, which occur in-situ, weaken and fracture cliffs leaving them more vulnerable to erosion. Mass movement, such as slumping and rock falls, can also influence coastal retreat which can result in bays forming in less resistant bands of rock.

How do Bays and Headlands form? (8 marks)
Located example of Bays and Headlands.

Isle of Purbeck, Dorset (Swanage)

Located example of Bays and Headlands.
Key terms to include when talking about Caves, Arches, Stacks & Stumps.

Differential rates of erosion, wave refraction, faults & joints, high & low tide range, sub-aerial processes AND refer to relevant geomorphic processes.

Key terms to include when talking about Caves, Arches, Stacks & Stumps.
How do Caves, Arches, Stacks & Stumps form? (8 marks)

Caves, arches stacks and stumps can be seen independently of each other, but in reality represent a sequence of events as headlands are formed and modified over time.

As waves approach the coastline wave refraction occurs (a re-angling of the waves) and they approach parallel to the coastline. As the part of the wave close to the headland enters shallow water friction slows down the wave, whilst the part of the wave in deeper water away from the headland continues to move quickly. This results in wave refraction as the wave bends around the headland and orthogonals converge. This process concentrates energy, and therefore erosion, on the side of headlands and can result in notches, caves, arches etc forming where there are points of weakness in the more resistant rocks, such as faults and joints.

Formation of notches and caves is also dependent on tidal range. Where there is a small tidal range the same area of cliff will be affected by erosional processes such as hydraulic action where water forces air into cracks and then expands to break these apart, abrasion and wave pounding. This causes undercutting and expansion of existing joints and faults to form notches which over time, will forms a cave. If a cave subsequently extends to the other side of the headland it will form an arch. Sub-aerial geomorphic processes such as mechanical and biological weathering, for example freeze-thaw, chelation or tree roots, will weaken the top of the arch causing it to collapse (mass movement) which will leave an isolated stack separated from headland. Continued weathering will, over time, reduce a stack to a stump which, under high tide or storm conditions, may not be visible.

How do Caves, Arches, Stacks & Stumps form? (8 marks)
Located example of Caves, Arches, Stacks & Stumps.

Old Harry Rocks, Swanage Dorset.

Located example of Caves, Arches, Stacks & Stumps.
Key terms to include when talking about Cliffs.

Strata, undercutting, profile, geology, horizontal, seaward-dipping, landward-dipping, high/low tide, tidal range, angle, steep, gentle AND refer to relevant geomorphic processes.

Key terms to include when talking about Cliffs.
How do Cliffs form? (8 marks)

Cliffs form where more there are resistant rocks such as limestone, chalk and granite will form vertical cliffs whereas less resistant rocks such as shales, glacial till and clays will form gently sloping coastlines (not cliffs as such). Vertical cliffs are both a requirement for the formation of shore platforms, and a result of their formation due to wave action removing debris from the base of the cliffs resulting in the cliff profile remaining vertical, and continual retreat parallel to the coast.

The gradient and direction of strata in cliffs will influence the rate of subaerial process of mass movement i.e. rotational slides, slumps and rock falls, with the former occurring on gentle gradients and the latter only on steep gradients. Strata which slopes seawards are more vulnerable to mass movement, whilst horizontal are less vulnerable and landward sloping are extremely unlikely to see mass movement occurring.

How do Cliffs form? (8 marks)
Key terms to include when talking about Shore platforms (wave cut platforms).

Strata, undercutting, profile, geology, horizontal, seaward-dipping, landward-dipping, high/low tide, tidal range, angle, steep, gentle AND refer to relevant geomorphic processes.

Key terms to include when talking about Shore platforms (wave cut platforms).
How do Shore platforms (wavecut platforms) form? (8 marks)

Shore platforms, also known as wavecut platforms, are formed in vertical cliffs, particularly where there is pronounced horizontal strata (layers), as a result of undercutting of the cliff followed by mass movement. Once formed, they are continually modified by continued erosion, as well as subaerial process of weathering (the breakdown of rocks in-situ) which weakens rocks makes cliffs more vulnerable to further erosion, and mass movement. Over time boulder sized debris from mass movement (collapse of the cliffs) forms on the shore platform and this will results in a widening of the platform to an extent that it produces shallow water and small waves, with waves breaking before they reach the base of the cliff and thus undercutting will cease - this is usually the case once a shore platform reaches 500m in width but this will depend on the energy of the coastline.

Tidal range, as well as profile of cliffs (see above), is very important in the formation of shore platforms; the smaller the tidal range the more concentrated the action of waves will be at the base of cliffs, and therefore undercutting, which is fundamental to the formation of shore platforms, is more likely to occur - a tidal range of less than 4m is more likely to produce shore platforms. Tidal range can also result in ‘ramps’ forming on the platform at high tide level, and a small cliff at the low tide level.

Weathering process which are significant to the formation and modification of shore platforms include chemical reactions (solution) and physical processes such as freeze-thaw. As with all geomorphic processes, the extent of these will vary both spatially and temporally as climate changes, and rock types differ.

Erosional processes which have the greatest influence on the formation of shore platforms are abrasion (the wearing away of rocks through a sandpapering effect, wave pounding (forces up to 30 tonnes per sq m exerting pressure to break down rocks) and hydraulic action (water forcing air into rocks which then expands as the wave receded, breaking apart rocks). The rate of these processes varies both spatially and temporally as climate changes, and rock types differ.

How do Shore platforms (wavecut platforms) form? (8 marks)
Located example of Shore platforms (wavecut platforms).

Dancing Ledge, Dorset.

Located example of Shore platforms (wavecut platforms).
Key terms to include when talking about Geos and Blowholes.

Inlets, vertical cliffs, joints, faults, master joint, roof collapse, mine shafts, storm, cave roof, AND refer to relevant geomorphic processes.

Key terms to include when talking about Geos and Blowholes.
How do Geos and Blowholes form? (8 marks)

Geos are narrow steep-sides inlets formed in steep vertical cliffs. They will only form in more resistant rocks as less-resistant rocks will not support their formation (or the formation of the vertical cliffs in which geo’s form). They are formed, and continually modified, by the geomorphic process of erosion, specifically wave pounding and hydraulic action, and the sub-aerial process of weathering including biological, chemical and physical.

The rate of each of the processes will vary spatially according to climate, geology, tidal range and wave energy.

The critical factor for formation of a geo is the presence of a weakness such as a joint or fault line in the cliff, as it is this weakness that is eroded and weathered to form the geo. Hydraulic action will trap air and water in this joint or fault line, and as the waves receded the pressure is released which allows the air and water to expand which will widen the joint or inlet. Over time this, along with the pressure exerted by continued wave pounding, will create an inlet which will continue to expand until a geo has formed.

Sometimes geos initially form a tunnel-like cave at right-angles to the cliff rather than vertically, and only form geos once continued erosion had led to the roof of the tunnel collapsing. Examples of these can be seen in Cornwall. Furthermore, if the roof of a tunnel-like cave collapses along a master joint due to continued erosion it may then form a vertical shaft which reaches the clifftop. This is known as a blowhole, and during stormy conditions waves may force spray out of the blowhole.

Alternatively, geo’s can result from the erosion of mine shafts rather than expansion of joints or fault lines.

How do Geos and Blowholes form? (8 marks)
Located example of Geos and Blowholes.

Huntsman’s Leap, Pembrokeshire, Wales.

Located example of Geos and Blowholes.
Name all 6 landforms of deposition.

Deltas, Spits, Salt Marshes, Bars, Tombolos, Beaches.

Name all 6 landforms of deposition.
Name all three sections of a Delta.

There are usually (but not always) 3 distinct sections to a delta: Submerged delta plane, Lower delta plane, Upper delta plane.

Name all three sections of a Delta.
What is the submerged delta plane?

This the area of the delta which extends into the sea (beyond the mean low water mark). Almost entirely formed from marine (sea) deposits (from off-shore sources) as a result of nearshore currents. Continued deposition will cause the delta to extend seawards.

What is the submerged delta plane?
What is the lower delta plane?

This is located in the inter-tidal zone (between high and low tide) and is formed by both fluvial and marine deposition of sediment (from off-shore and inland sources).

What is the lower delta plane?
What is the upper delta plane?

This is the furthest inland where tidal currents do no influence sediment deposition. Only fluvial sediment (from inland sources) is deposited in this section.

What is the upper delta plane?
How do Deltas form? (8 marks)

Deltas are a fluvial / coastal landform of deposition. They are large areas of sediment deposited by rivers and tidal currents.

Deltas occur where the conditions are correct for deposition to occur i.e. where fluvial and near-shore tidal currents deposit sediment at a faster rate than tides can remove it. For example:

  • When there is a high volume of fluvial sediment at the point at which a river enters the sea.
  • There is a wide, gently sloping, continental shelf at the mouth of the river on which sediment can accumulate.
  • Low energy conditions where deposition is the dominant process.
  • Low tidal range i.e. enclosed sea’s such as the Mediterranean.

Sediment sources are both marine (off-shore) brought on shore by tidal currents, and fluvial (inland) sources deposited by loss of velocity as the river meets the sea. These are called deltaic sediments.

How do Deltas form? (8 marks)
What is a distributary?

Distributaries are the opposite of tributaries i.e. they are channels leading water away from the main river (rather than tributaries which converge with rivers at confluence points). This occurs as sediment builds up in the main river channel which divides the channel into two (or more) channels (this is called ‘braiding’).

Distributaries have a very low velocity as the energy has been split between more than one channel, and therefore more deposition occurs, resulting in further dividing and the formation of further distributaries. Levees (a build up of sediment which increases the height of the river bank, and therefore the river capacity) often occur along distributaries.

What is a distributary?
What is a levee?

Levees can be ‘breached’ (broken) during flood events and sediment will then be dropped in the low-lying areas between levees. These are called crevasse -splays.

What is a levee?
Name all types of Delta.

Cuspate delta, Arcuate delta, Bird’s foot delta.

Name all types of Delta.
What is a cuspate delta?

A pointed extension to the coastline occurs when sediment accumulates but this is shaped by regular, gentle currents from opposite directions.

What is a cuspate delta?
What is an arcuate delta?

Sufficient sediment supply is available for the delta to grow seawards, but wave action is strong enough to smooth and trim its leading edge.

What is an arcuate delta?
What is a bird’s foot delta?

Distributaries build out from the coast in a branching pattern, with river sediment supply exceeding the rates of removal by waves and currents.

What is a bird’s foot delta?
Located example of a Delta.

The Nile Delta (all three sections are evidenced).

Located example of a Delta.
Key terms to include when talking about Spits.

Sand, shingle, topography (headland/estuary), longshore drift, recurved, wave refraction, hooked, wind, sheltered, salt marsh.

Key terms to include when talking about Spits.
How do Spits form? (8 marks)

Spits are long, narrow beaches or sand or shingle (sediment) that are attached to the land at one end and extend across a bay, estuary or indentation in the coastline. They are a landform of deposition i.e. they occur when the sediment budget is in excess meaning that sediment load exceeds tidal current and the ability of waves to remove material within the nearshore sediment circulation system.

The controlling factors required for a sediment to form are characteristic of a low energy coastline with less resistant rocks which are vulnerable to erosion, thus ensuring a sediment supply. Geomorphic processes, particularly transportation and subsequent deposition through longshore drift (LSD), play an important role in the formation of spits as they supply the sediment from which they are formed. Spits will form in the direction of the prevailing wind as a response to material being carried to the end of the beach and then outwards into the open water.

As more material is accumulated through the action of LSD, or additional sediment being transported from off shore by waves, the spit will become more substantial and permanent in nature - although, as with all coastal landforms, they will always be dynamic. As the spits grow over time, the spit may become recurved as a result of wave refraction around the end of the spit, or a secondary wind direction. In the sheltered landward area behind a spit, deposition will often occur as wave energy is reduced and sediment is dropped. In this area, salt tolerant (saline resistant) plants will colonise the area, which will further trap sediment and lead to the establishment of a salt marsh.

As these areas become established, more plants will become established which will in turn trap sediment and help the spit to develop.

Spits are dynamic landforms adjusting in response to tides and waves and if there was a large storm, or a change in sediment supply, a spit will either be depleted, or added to. Spits will often grow parallel to the coastline dependent on the shape of the coastline and the direction of LSD. Where a spit forms at the mouth of a river it will be stopped from growing further due to the energy of the river at its mouth, or estuary, removing material from the end of the spit.

Spits can also be modified by human activity, such as the installation of coastal management strategies. For example, groynes can result in the destruction (denudation) of spits as they significantly reduce the sediment supply. Sea walls can also restrict sediment supply as they reduce the amount of erosion and therefore the amount of available sediment. Global warming due to an increase in anthropogenic greenhouse gases, can result in higher energy waves which whilst arguably increasing sediment supply through erosion, will also reduce deposition and prevent the formation of spits, or erode existing landforms.

How do Spits form? (8 marks)
Located example of a Spit.

Blakeney Point Spit, North Norfolk.

Located example of a Spit.
Key terms to include when talking about Salt Marshes.

Low-energy, vegetation, silt & clays, floculation, sediment, turbid waters, tidal currents, saline, submerged, gradient, saltpans, depressions, accumulation, velocity, flocs.

Key terms to include when talking about Salt Marshes.
How do Salt Marshes form? (8 marks)

Saltmarshes are vegetated areas of deposited silts and clays and are often (but not exclusively) associated with low energy coastal areas, such at river estuaries, sheltered bays or on the landward side of spits, on-shore bars or tombolos. The low energy allows deposition of fine sediments such as silts and clays. In the presence of saline water small electrical charges in clay particles attract one another causes particles to join together to form flocs. These flocs are heavier than single particle and thus unable to be transported and will settle within the saltmarsh. This process of flocculation will further slow-down the movement of water, encouraging further deposition and the continued build-up of saltmarshes.

Salt marshes are part of coastal system, and in terms of sediment supply they are also reliant on erosional processes such abrasion, attrition, wave pounding and hydraulic action as well as chemical, mechanical and biological weathering and mass movement. Factors which influence the formation of salt marshes include geology as a source of sediment, and climate as this provides the energy for all geomorphic processes to occur.

Salt marshes have a shallow gradient that slopes seawards (see diagram) and can be considered in terms of the lower marsh closest to the sea, and the upper marsh on the landward side. The two are often separated by deep channel or creek. These small steep-sided channels drain the marsh at low tide and provide the routes for water to re-enter as the tide rises. Depressions between creeks trap water as the tide falls forming areas of saline water known as saltpans.

Sea level change, which is in turn influenced by climate, also has a significant role in modifying salt marshes. Tides inundate salt marshes twice daily (the extent of this depends on the tidal range so will vary spatially) and for this reason plants in saltmarshes must be saline resistant, such as spartina and eel grass.

As vegetation growth, the roots will trap more sediment from both fluvial and tidal current helping to increase the overall height of the salt marsh. As the salt marsh increases in height the risk of being inundated by sea water decreases and thus the salinity level decreases, and a wider variety of plants will become established on the upper marsh. The lower marsh remains more saline as it will be more frequently submerged. This results in turbid water and restricts growth of plants to saline resistant varieties only.

Salt marshes are influenced and modified by human activity such as building dams on rivers which affects sediment supply and energy of rivers, or coastal management strategies such as groynes and seawalls which will, over time, influence the supply of sediment. Human activity is also altering climates as a result of anthropogenic GHG emissions, and this contributes to rising sea levels and increased inundation of salt marshes, to the extent that in recent years many have been completely destroyed.

How do Salt Marshes form? (8 marks)
Located example of a Salt Marsh.

Stiffkey, North Norfolk.

Located example of a Salt Marsh.
Key terms to include when talking about Bars (onshore and offshore).

Sand, shingle, cove/bay, lagoon, landward, post-glacial (sea level rise).

Key terms to include when talking about Bars (onshore and offshore).
What is the difference between onshore and offshore bars?

Off-shore bars are formed in the same way as onshore but won’t form lagoons

What is the difference between onshore and offshore bars?
How do Bars (onshore and offshore) form? (8 marks)

On-shore bars are landforms of deposition which can occur when a spit extends across an inundation such as bay or cove. A lagoon of water will form on the landward side of the sand bar.

Off-shore bars occur when waves enter shallow water off the coastline and therefore lose energy and drop sediment. Sea level change can also play a significant role in the formation off on-shore sand bars as sediment is washed on-shore during post-glacial sea level rise such as the Flandrian Transgression at the end of the last ice age, which started approx. 10,000 years ago and finished approx. 6000 years ago.

On-shore and off-shore bars are part of a coastal system, and in terms of sediment supply they are also reliant on erosional processes such abrasion, attrition, wave pounding and hydraulic action as well as chemical, mechanical and biological weathering and mass movement. Factors which influence the formation of sand bars include geology as a source of sediment, and climate as this provides the energy for all geomorphic processes to occur.

Bars are influenced and modified by human activity such as building dams on rivers which affects sediment supply and energy of rivers, or coastal management strategies such as groynes and seawalls which will, over time, influence the supply of sediment.

Human activity is also altering climates as a result of anthropogenic GHG emissions, and this contributes to rising sea levels and modification of on-shore and off-shore bars.

How do Bars (onshore and offshore) form? (8 marks)
Located example of Bars (onshore and offshore).

Slapton Sands, Devon.

Located example of Bars (onshore and offshore).
Key terms to include when talking about Tombolos.

Sand, shingle, offshore island, post-glacial (sea level rise), spits, onshore, longshore currents (LSD).

Key terms to include when talking about Tombolos.
How do Tombolos form? (8 marks)

Tombolo's are a coastal landform of deposition; deposition occurs when sediment load exceeds both tidal currents and wave energy, and material can no longer be transport. Under these conditions, sediment such as sand, shingle and pebbles, will start to accumulate and, over time and assuming deposition remains the dominant process, this can result in the formation of a spit.

As material continues to build up, a spit may subsequently become a tombolo as it extends to join the mainland to an offshore island; tomobolos are simply spits that have continued to grow seawards until they reach and join an island.

A famous example of a tombolo is Chesil Beach, near Weymouth, Dorset.

Longshore drift (LSD) is one geomorphic process which can help to explain the formation of tombolos (see diagram). The sediment being transported is a consequence of subaerial processes (weathering and mass movement) and erosion (particularly abrasion, hydraulic action and wave pounding) as well as from terrestrial, human and off-shore sources. LSD will transport this sediment in the direction of the prevailing wind.

This process transports material up, or down, coast and then beyond into the open water. As tombolos are dependent on supply of sediment, formation will be affected by geology and climate as these have a significant impact on the rate of erosion, and subsequent transportation and deposition.

Once formed, tombolo’s are constantly modified. For example, energy from waves will transport sediment off shore (high energy destructive waves), and back on-shore (low energy constructive waves), and this will act to further develop tombolos through addition (or loss) of material.

As well as geomorphic processes, rising sea levels can also impact on the formation and modification of tombolos. When sea levels rise, sediment stored off-shore i.e. off-shores bars, or on the sea bed, will be driven on-shore by higher sea levels and higher energy waves. This sediment will then add to the formation of tombolos. It is thought that sea level rise during Flandrian transgression (following the end of the last ice age approx. 10,000 year ago) largely explains the formation of Chesil Beach.

How do Tombolos form? (8 marks)
Explain the roles of flows of energy in the formation of a tombolo. (8 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 7/8 = A grade (87.5%)

A tombolo is a depositional landform which means that it will likely be found in a low energy coastal system. A tombolo is a stretch of sediment such as shingle or sand that connects an offshore island to the mainland/coastline. Energy involved in the formation and modification of tombolos includes potential, kinetic and thermal. Tombolos are formed mainly by longshore drift where sediment is eroded, transported and deposited. The direction and power of LSD is determined by the prevailing wind.

One example in the formation is the potential energy in a wave which is converted into kinetic energy as that wave slams into the coastline. This is a description of the geomorphic process of wave pounding (wave processes - erosion) where 30 tonnes per m2 can be exerted by high-energy waves. This pounding can cause rocks to weaken and can be carried away as sediment. Other geomorphic processes responsible for accumulating sediment include abrasion, attrition, hydraulic action, solution, physical weathering, chemical weathering, biological weathering, mass movement (rock fall, slides). Physical weathering processes such as freeze-thaw and thermal-expansion can be altered depending on the thermal energy available.

Another example in the formation is the transportation which can be solution, suspension, saltation or traction. The more wave energy (as a result of a longer fetch - higher wind speed) available the faster sediment will be transported.

This sediment is deposited when wave energy (normally as a result of decreased wind energy) drops or the sediment encounters a topographical barrier.

Rising sea levels could play a role as it can focus wave energy on different parts of a coastline. Rising sea levels could also help modify a tombolo by submerging it.

Chesil beach in Dorset is a located example of a tombolo.

Explain the roles of flows of energy in the formation of a tombolo. (8 marks)
Located example of a Tombolos.

Chesil Beach, Dorset.

Located example of a Tombolos.
Describe the main movement of sediment onto Chesil Beach.

Chesil Beach shows movement of sediment onshore during the last glacial period.

Describe the main movement of sediment onto Chesil Beach.
Key terms to include when talking about.

Profile, high tide, low tide, cliff erosion, off shore, fluvial (river), gradient, runnels, berms, cusps, swash, backwash, ripples, equilibrium, high-energy, low-energy.

Key terms to include when talking about.
What is a beach?

Beaches are the most common landform of deposition and are formed through the accumulation of sediment deposited between high and low tide. They will form in low energy environments, such as sheltered bays. Sediment is derived from a terrestrial sources (cliff erosion), off shore and downshore and fluvial, as well as human activity.

The size of sediment is a result of geology (resistance of rocks) and climate due to the influence of this on geomorphic processes such as weathering, mass movement and erosion - with attrition largely determining the size of sediment.

What is a beach?
Notes on shingle beaches.

These comprise larger size sediment and tend to have a gradient greater than 5 degrees, because on these coastlines swash is stronger than backwash so there is a net movement of shingle onto beaches. As water percolates through the gaps between particles, little backwash occurs and therefore there is limited movements of sediment off-shore which builds up beaches resulting in a steep profile. Waves rarely reach the back of these beaches so little attrition occurs and large boulders will be found at in the sub-aerial beach zone.

Storm waves will hurl large pebbles to the back of the beach which can forms storm beaches or ridges. Smaller ridges, known as berms, will develop at high tide and mean tide marks creating a ridged (bumpy) beach profile. Semi-circular depression, cusps, and also develop in areas where waves reach the same point and where swash and backwash have the same energy. The sides of a cusp will push into swash into the centre of the cusp which can create a strong backwash which will drag material down the beach and therefore enlarge the depression (cusp).

Notes on shingle beaches.
Notes on sandy beaches.

These comprise smaller size sediment and tend to have a gradient less than 5 degrees. This is because on these coastlines, due to smaller particles being more compact and therefore little percolation occurring, there is a strong backwash which carries sediment down the beach rather than leaving it at the top. This process also results in the formation of runnels and ridges parallel to the shore, as well as cusps in the surf zone.

Notes on sandy beaches.
Located example of beaches.

Shingle Beach - Porlock Bay, Devon.

Sandy Beach - Sandbanks, Dorset.

Located example of beaches.
Outline the difference between eustatic and isostatic sea level change.

Eustatic sea level change is worldwide i.e. due to thermal expansion as ocean temperatures increase, whereas isostatic is located change in the position of land against the sea i.e. due to uplift when glaciers melt.

Outline the difference between eustatic and isostatic sea level change.
Outline the difference between glacial and interglacial periods.

Glacial periods are cooler with a negative heat balance (overall, temperatures are below zero) and there is a more extensive cryosphere (frozen areas) whereas inter-glacials are warmer periods with a positive heat balance, and will see a reduction in the extent of the cryosphere.

The current Holocene interglacial began to emerge at the end of the Pleistocene, about 11,700 years ago (prior to that we were in a glacial period; The Wurm glacial period). The time since this transition has seen significant sea level rise. This is known as the Flandrian Transgression.

Outline the difference between glacial and interglacial periods.
By approx. how much did sea levels fall during the last ice age?

Approx. 100m.

By approx. how much did sea levels fall during the last ice age?
By approx. how much have sea levels risen since the end of the last ice age?

Approx. 83m.

By approx. how much have sea levels risen since the end of the last ice age?
Outline 4 physical causes of climate change.

i) The Orbit of the Earth around the Sun (one aspect of Milankovitch cycles) which reflect our position again the sun and therefore affects the amount of solar radiation (heat) received at the Earth’s surface which therefore affects climate.

ii) Volcanic eruptions also affect climate change as they can both raise temperatures through emitting GHG’s (carbon) but more significantly through emissions of sulphur which becomes sulphuric acid which acts like small mirrors in the atmosphere and reflects incoming solar radiation. Explosive eruptions can also emit an ash cloud that can block out sunlight and cause a volcanic winter i.e. Mount Pinatubo 1991.

iii) Sun spots occur approx. every 11 years (solar maximum) and these darker patches emit more heat which again contributes to the amount of solar radiation (heat) received at the Earth’s surface.

iv) Tilt of the Earth’s axis((one aspect of Milankovitch cycles) also affects the extent to which the Sun’s heat reaches the Earth’s surface and therefore affects climate. This is one reason for spatial variations.

And/or v) Naturally occurring GHG’s (Carbon Dioxide, Nitrous Oxide, Methane, Water etc) affect the amount of heat that is trapped and therefore heats the Earth’s surface.

Outline 4 physical causes of climate change.
Explain two reasons why sea levels rise during interglacial periods.

One reason why SL’s rise during glacial periods is due to thermal expansion whereby as oceans are warmed particles expand which causes SL to rise. A second reason for SL rise is due to both warming atmospheric and ocean temperatures which melt the cryosphere (glaciers) from above and below, resulting in more liquid water in oceans causing eustatic SL rise.

Explain two reasons why sea levels rise during interglacial periods.
Explain two reasons why sea levels fall during glacial periods.

One reason why SL’s fall during interglacial periods is due to thermal contraction whereby as oceans are cooled particles contract which causes SL to fall.

A second reason for SL fall is due to both cooling atmospheric and ocean temperatures which increase the extend of the cryosphere which reduces the volume of liquid water in oceans.

Explain two reasons why sea levels fall during glacial periods.
Name the 2 submergent landforms.

Rias and Fjords.

Name the 2 submergent landforms.
Key terms to include when talking about Rias.

Flandrian Transgression, Wurm Period, sea level, interglacial, glacial, fluvial, geomorphic processes (consider erosion, weathering and deposition), formation, modification, spatially, temporally.

Key terms to include when talking about Rias.
How do Rias form? (8 marks)

Rias are landforms of submerged coastline and will form in in areas where valleys have been eroded by rivers, which creates v-shaped valley. In long profile, they are water is of uniform depth (the same depth inland as close to the sea), whereas in cross profile rias has relatively shallow water but becoming increasingly deep towards the centre (see diagram). Rias will occur in inter-glacial periods when sea levels rise, such those seen since the Flandrian Transgresion at the end of the last ice age, approx. 10,000 years ago.

The lower course of the river valley closest to the sea, known as the threshold, will become completely submerged (drowned) and therefore subjected modification by erosion, whereas the middle and upper course of the river will remain unaffected. The valley sides will be affected by sub-aerial geomorphic processes of weathering and mass movement, the rates of which are determined by geology and climate.

Erosional processes present in fluvial (river) environments include abrasion, which is the repeated wearing away of the riverbed by particle carried by the water, and hydraulic action where water forces air into gaps in the riverbed and banks. As the water retreats the air expands which cracks rocks apart. These fragments of rocks will then be transported by the river, which provides fluvial sediment to coastlines.

During low energy interglacial periods i.e. Flandrian Transgression, sediments will be deposited on the bottom of the ria which will infill the channels. Additional sediment is supplied by the movement of sea water inland. During low tides, these sediment deposits will become exposed within rias.

The sides of rias will be modified by weathering processes.

The type and rate of these processes will vary spatially as it is dependent on geology and climate, but include biological weathering such as chelation whereby organic matter disintegrate rocks, or chemical weathering processes such as hydration which will cause surface flaking as moisture is added to rock minerals to form minerals of a larger volume i.e. gypsum.

Our current period of climate change could result in further submergence and the extension inland of existing rias.

How do Rias form? (8 marks)
Located example of a Ria.

Kingsbridge Harbour, Devon.

Located example of a Ria.
Key terms to include when talking about Fjords.

Flandrian Transgression, Wurm Period, sea level, interglacial, glacial, fluvial, geomorphic processes (consider erosion, weathering and deposition), formation, modification, spatially, temporally.

Key terms to include when talking about Fjords.
How do Fjords form? (8 marks)

Fjords are landforms of submerged coastline which form in areas where valleys have been eroded by glaciers, which forms U-shaped valleys. They will occur in inter-glacial periods when sea levels rise, such those seen since the Flandrian Transgression at the end of the last ice age, approx. 10,000 years ago. The lower course of the glacial valley, closest to the sea, will become completely submerged (drowned) and therefore subjected modification by erosion, whereas the middle and upper course of the river will remain unaffected. The fjord will be deeper, with steeper valley sides further inland. The valley sides will be affected by sub-aerial geomorphic processes of weathering and mass movement. Fjords are U-shaped in profile, with steep valley-sides which resemble cliffs (see diagram) and are uniform in depth - up to 1000m - which reflects the original shape of the valley as eroded by (valley) glaciers. They have a glacial rock base with a shallower section at the end, which is known as the threshold (the entrance to the Fjord), which reflects the lower rates of erosion by the glacier at the seaward end of the glacier due to warmer conditions from oceans which tend to be warmer than continental land masses. The dimensions of fjords vary spatially due to the differences in the severity of glacial conditions. For example, fjords in Scotland are less well developed than in Norway, as glaciers were not as thick during the glacial period. Erosional processes present in these environments include abrasion, which is the repeated wearing away of the valley floor by particles carried by the ice. Once the valley has been submerged to create a fjord, processes such as hydraulic action will also occur as water forces air into cracks which subsequently expands as the water retreats, thus cracking rocks apart. These fragments of rocks will then be transported by the water which provides sediment to coastlines. As fjords are deep, water has more energy and therefore rates of erosion relatively high even in interglacial periods such as the Flandrian Transgression, although this does vary and in some Fjords there has been some deposition of sediment, particularly in recent years as global warming has seen glaciers melting and sediment released and transported.

How do Fjords form? (8 marks)
Located example of a Fjord.

Milford Sound, New Zealand.

Located example of a Fjord.
Name the 3 emergent landforms.

Relic (abandoned) Cliffs, Marine Terraces, Raised Beaches.

Name the 3 emergent landforms.
Key terms to include when talking about Relic (abandoned) Cliffs.

Flandrian Transgression, Wurm Period, interglacial, glacial, fluvial, geomorphic processes (consider erosion, weathering and mass movement), formation, modification, spatially, temporally.

Key terms to include when talking about Relic (abandoned) Cliffs.
How do Relic (abandoned) Cliffs form? (8 marks)

Relic (abandoned) cliffs are landforms of emergent coastlines which form during glacial periods when sea levels fall due to thermal contraction and more water being held in the cryosphere. Relic (abandoned) cliffs are often, but not always, associated with raised beaches which form when short platforms are left at a higher level than current SL.

As relic (abandoned) cliffs are no longer adjacent to the sea they will therefore be unaffected by erosion, but still modified by sub-aerial processes such as mechanical and biological weathering and mass movement. The rate of these processes will vary temporally and spatially as they are dependent on climate and geology. Vulnerability to mass movement is also linked to the angle of the slope.

A further process which may affect relic cliffs is cryotubation which will occur under periglacial conditions i.e. during the last ice age. This, alongside frost shattering, will break down rock and modify rock and increase the risk of mass movement. These cliffs may show evidence of wave cut notches, caves and arches which formed through wave erosion when sea levels were higher.

See formation of cliffs for formation and modification.

How do Relic (abandoned) Cliffs form? (8 marks)
The effect of future sea level rise on relic cliffs.

If sea levels continue to rise as projected i.e. by up at 2.5m by the end of the century, some relic cliff could once again be aligned with the sea and affected by erosional processes such as hydraulic action, abrasion and wave pounding.

The effect of future sea level rise on relic cliffs.
Located example of a Relic (abandoned) Cliff.

Arran, Scotland.

Located example of a Relic (abandoned) Cliff.
Key terms to include when talking about Marine Terraces.

Flandrian Transgression, Wurm Period, interglacial, glacial, fluvial, geomorphic processes (consider erosion, weathering and mass movement), formation, modification, spatially, temporally.

Key terms to include when talking about Marine Terraces.
How do Marine Terraces form? (8 marks)

Marine terraces form as a result of a series of SL changes, and result in a stepped appearance to the coastline.

See formation and modification of raised beaches and abandoned (relic) cliffs.

How do Marine Terraces form? (8 marks)
Located example of a Marine Terrace.

Santa Cruz, USA.

Located example of a Marine Terrace.
Key terms to include when talking about Raised Beaches.

Flandrian Transgression, Wurm Period, interglacial, glacial, fluvial, geomorphic processes (consider erosion, weathering and mass movement), formation, modification, spatially, temporally.

Key terms to include when talking about Raised Beaches.
How do Raised Beaches form? (8 marks)

Raised beaches are landforms of emergent coastlines which form during glacial periods when sea levels fall due to thermal contraction and more water being held in the cryosphere. They are areas of former shore platforms that are left at a higher level than the present sea level, and could be some distant from the current shoreline. Relic cliffs may be found at the back of raised beaches.

As a result of falling SL’s, beaches are no longer adjacent to the sea and will be unaffected by erosion, but still modified by sub-aerial processes such as mechanical and biological weathering and mass movement. The rate of these processes will vary temporally and spatially as they are dependent on climate and geology.

How do Raised Beaches form? (8 marks)
When were most raised beaches formed?

Most raised beaches are formed at the end of the last ice age (10,000 years ago).

When were most raised beaches formed?
Located example of a Raised Beach.

Arran, Scotland.

Located example of a Raised Beach.
Explain how changing sea levels can contribute to the formation and modification of shingle ridges, including tombolos.

SL have a significant role in the formation and subsequent modification of shingle ridges. When SL’s fall during glacial periods, new land emerges from the sea and fluvial and in low energy conditions sediment will accumulate on these areas. Subsequent SL rises during inter-glacial periods i.e. during the Flandrian Transgression, will result in wave action moving these sediments on-shore resulting in the creation, or extension, or landforms of deposition including shingle beaches and bars. These will subsequently be modified by geomorphic processes as SL’s continue to rise, or subsequently fall. The formation and modification of shingle ridges varies spatially due to variations in sediment supply and wave action, but also temporally as temperatures, and therefore SL’s, change over millenia (thousands of years). If a shingle ridge extends to an island it will become known as a tombolo.

A located example of a shingle ridge, which is also a tombolo, is Chesil Beach in Dorset which connects the mainland to the Isle of Portland. The formation of Chesil Beach is partially due to LSD (see diagram) but also due the release of sediment accumulated along the Dorset coastline during Wurm glacial, which was transported north east by SW winds during as SL’s started to rise again. This resulted in an extension of the shingle ridge to the point that it connected to the Isle of Portland to create a tombolo.

Explain how changing sea levels can contribute to the formation and modification of shingle ridges, including tombolos.
Explain how changing sea levels will modify shore platforms.

Shore platforms are erosional landforms which can be formed in steep vertical cliffs along high energy coastlines, such as those found in Selwicks Bay, Yorkshire, or Dancing Ledge in Dorset. They predominant processes in their formation are erosional processes of abrasion and hydraulic action which cause undercutting of the cliff, followed by mass movement which results in cliff collapse leaving a platform of more resistant rock which is exposed during low tide. Changing SL can have a significant role in the modification of shore platforms, as these will affect the height at which abrasion and hydraulic action occurs, and thus increase, or decrease, the likelihood of shore platforms forming. SL will also impact on the tidal range, which is also key to the formation of shore platforms as a tidal range of less than 4m is required for these to form. When SL falls, shore platforms will raised above the sea level to form raised beaches, often with abandoned cliffs behind, and will not longer be affected by wave action, but will still be vulnerable to modification by sub-aerial processes. As SL’s rise, shore platforms will once again be modified by wave action.

Explain how changing sea levels will modify shore platforms.
Explain how rising sea levels will modify depositional landforms.

Changing SL can have a significant role in the modification of depositional landforms as they impact on sediment supply and the rate and extent at which geomorphic processes such as erosion, transportation (particularly LSD) and deposition occur. These processes, together with weathering and mass movement, are key to the formation of landforms such as beaches, spits, on-shore and off-shore bars and shingle ridges or tombolos.

For example, the formation of Chesil Beach, Dorset was significantly influenced by changing SL’s in terms of the supply of sediment (see Q10) but also subsequent modification by wave action, and / or further accumulation of sediment as SL’s change over millenia.

Explain how rising sea levels will modify depositional landforms.
What are the 3 different forms of energy in coastal landscape systems?

Kinetic, thermal and potential.

What are the 3 different forms of energy in coastal landscape systems?
What causes waves to break?

Friction between the sea floor and the moving water in the wave slows the wave and causes it to steepen. When water depth is < 1.3 x wave height, the wave breaks.

What causes waves to break?
Why is chalk classified as a porous rock?

It contains numerous small air spaces (pores) in which water can be held.

Why is chalk classified as a porous rock?
What is the difference between mass movement and transportation?

Mass movement involves the force of gravity, whereas transportation requires a moving medium, such as water.

What is the difference between mass movement and transportation?
What is the difference between erosion and weathering?

Erosion is the wearing away of rock, and so requires a moving force, whereas weathering is the breakdown and decay of rock, and a moving force is not required.

What is the difference between erosion and weathering?
Why can waves erode both sides of a headland?

Because waves can be refracted around the headland.

Why can waves erode both sides of a headland?
What is flocculation?

A process by which salt causes the aggregation of minute clay particles into larger masses that are too heavy to remain suspended in water.

What is flocculation?
How can dredging influence coastal landscapes?

It can protect the coastline.

How can dredging influence coastal landscapes?
How does rain bowing influence the coastal landscape?

Helps to protect the coast.

How does rain bowing influence the coastal landscape?
Explain two reasons why temperature change causes sea-level change.

It affects the volume of water stored on the land as ice, which in turn affects the volume in the oceans. It also affects the volume in the sea as warmer water is less dense and so occupies a greater volume, and vice versa.

Explain two reasons why temperature change causes sea-level change.
(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Explain how a sediment cell can be viewed as a system. (8 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 8/8 = A* grade (100%)

Sediment cells can be viewed as systems because within systems there are a set of interlated inputs, outputs and stores. Sediment cells are closed systems meaning that energy can transfer in and out of the system, whereas water cannot transfer between sediment cells (although in reality in high-energy storm conditions waves and tidal currents can transfer sediment matter between different sediment cells.

Energy inputs within the system include the kinetic energy from winds which creates wave energy (kinetic), the kinetic energy of tides which are generated by gravitational energy of the Moon's gravitational pull and the Sun's thermal energy which influences temperature and as a result both chemical and physical (mechanical) weathering within the system.

Sediment may be transferred through the system by littoral drift (LSD is where waves at an oblique angle carry swash up the beach and backwash returns material at 90º to the coastline) or through wave transportation (suspension, solution, traction or saltation). Within the system, sediment may be stored on the beach, in the offshore zone (a part of an offshore bar) while cliffs are also a major store of material. Other processes within the system may include sub-aerial weathering and mass movement processes which can transfer material from the cliff to storage on the beach.

Sediment cells are in dynamic equilibrium - this means that the rate of input equals the rate of outputs. If there is any disturbance to this equilibrium the sediment cell system will work to correct that disturbance, e.g. if storm conditions remove sediment the system will work to restore the balance of sediment. This is a negative feedback system. An example of a sediment cell is St Abbs Head to Flamborough Head in Yorkshire.

The candidates’ response is thorough. It fully explains the sediment cell as a system of inputs, processes, transfers and outputs. They include detail of the closed and open facets of the system, understanding that matter is rarely transported between cells, but that energy does flow between them. They understand that sediment cells are in a state of dynamic equilibrium and that the system works to self-correct imbalances through negative feedback.

(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Explain how a sediment cell can be viewed as a system. (8 marks)
(June 2018) Question 1 (d) Using a case study, assess the relative importance of the different physical factors influencing the landscape of a high energy coastline. (16 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 16/16 (AO1 8 marks/AO2 8 marks) = A* grade (100%)

The stretch of coastline between Saltburn and Flamborough has a variety of coastal features in what forms a unique landforms. Many argue that marine action processes are always most important in forming a stretch of coast but there are several other physical factors that can significantly influence marine processes themselves and so they may be the most important.

Between Flamborough Head and Saltburn (Yorkshire) there is a discordant coastline and this is largely due to the varied geology of the region. For instance, Robin's Hood Bay is made up of less resistant (weaker) sedimentary shales which are more susceptible to a higher erosion rate of up to 0.8m/yr. Either side of this bay are headlands of more resistant sandstone (Ness Point and Ravenscar) and these are less susceptible. As a result, they form headlands, a prominent coastal feature and this shows varying lithology (geology) which can have a significant influence on a coastal landscape. Another effect they have is to act as a sediment source and some weak boulder clay in deposit are eroded and so contribute to the sediment budget of a stretch of coastline and this provides sediment for beaches such as at Saltburn. The structures (geology) of rock can also be very important as they can provide points of weakness which are attacked by physical weathering processes such as pressure release as well as the erosional process hydraulic action which can exploit these points of weakness and so contribute to the formation of specific coastal features such as geos, of which there over 50 on the this stretch of coast. In addition a master joint such as the one at Selwick's Bay can be critical in forming caves, arches and subsequent stumps and stacks such as the Pinnacle Stack. Therefore the structure of the rocks are a key physical factor as they can accelerate the formation of erosional landforms by enhancing marine processes and allowing increased kinetic energy to attack the coast.

However, there are other physical factors that actually create this high energy environment and so may be more influential on the landscape. Flamborough to Saltburn has year round waves over 4m and as a result marine erosion is a key process. But this is driven by another physical factor; fetch. There is a fetch of over 1500km for this coastline and this means that often high energy swell waves are generated and this is key in determining this landscape which has few beaches as these high energy waves remove sediment before it can accumulate. This shows how this physical factor is essential to forming this landscape and without this large fetch then there would likely be less tall and steep cliffs as there would be less energy to create wave cut notches and so cause cliff collapse (a shift in equilibrium) therefore the 500m wide shore platform at Robin Hood's Bay may also not have been formed.

Another physical factor is the limited fluvial deposition and so sediment supply for this area of coast which some could argue is very important as an increased sediment budget for this sub cell could reduce the efforts of marine erosion by forming wider beaches that absorb wave kinetic energy and so reduce the effect of the large fetch.

To conclude, however, I believe that the geology of this coastal landscape is the most important physical factor as it can enlarge the effect of marine erosion by providing points of weakness and arguably the most notable feature of this landscape is its discordant nature and the varying lithology (and so geology) is essential to this: structural features such as the fact that most rock such as chalk is horizontally bedded also contributes to the tall, steep cliffs for which it is noted.

AO1: This response shows a comprehensive knowledge and understanding of how physical factors influence the landscape of a high energy coastline. The candidate discusses geology, in terms of rock structure, alignment and lithology, they discuss winds and waves, sediment budgets and the lack of fluvial deposition, and how all of these influence the landscape in their chosen study area, with accurate place-specific examples.AO2: This response is comprehensive. The candidate assesses the relative importance of the physical factors they have discussed. They understand that these influences both create new landforms and modify the existing ones. They discuss the varying rates and scales over which the factors act and show an understanding of how sediment budgets and inter-relationships between landforms are influenced. The conclusions drawn are rational and secure judgements are offered.

(June 2018) Question 1 (d) Using a case study, assess the relative importance of the different physical factors influencing the landscape of a high energy coastline. (16 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Explain the role of flows of energy in the formation of a tombolo (8 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 8/8 = A* grade (100%)

Tombolos are landforms of deposition formed when sediment extends from the mainland and is connected to an offshore island. An example of a tombolo is in Dorset where the Isle of Portland is connected to the mainland by Chesil Beach. There are two theories of how Chesil Beach was formed.

One is by longshore drift - wind is an input/flow of energy to the coastal system and the prevailing westerly winds caused the waves to approach the coastline at an angle, distributing sediment onto the beach. Backwash then pulls against the coastline and causes sediment to be transported back into the ocean perpendicular to the direction of the coastline. The action of the wind and waves causes the movement of material from west to east by longshore (littoral) drift. Whilst normally this would form a spit, due to the change in direction of a coastline, an offshore point it encountered, thus forming a tombolo. In this way kinetic energy flows due to tides, current and by the action of the constructive waves and the prevailing wind.

Another theory as to how the tombolo at Chesil Beach is formed is between 12000-6000 BP, there was a period of sea level rise, called the Flandrian Transgression where sea levels rose by 120m. As the sea level rose it brought with it a large amounts of sediment. At 6000 BP when sea levels stabilised, sediment was deposited forming many of the UK's depositional landforms today. At Chesil Beach, this formed a tombolo. In this way, the flow of energy is in the form of sea level rise due to energy provided by the sun causing glaciers to melt and wave energy to deposit material.

It is believed that at Chesil Beach, the tombolo was formed due to rises in sea level as the sediment size gets smaller from east to west whereas it would get larger if it were formed due to longshore drift due to attrition.

Throughout this answer the candidate continuously comes back to this idea of energy and links is clearly to how a tombolo is formed. The candidate specifies certain types of energy such as kinetic and thermal and is able to discuss the role they plan in the tombolo formation. Furthermore they demonstrate comprehensive knowledge and understanding by showing that there is more than one way in which a tombolo is formed; and again link both of these to energy. This candidate is able to demonstrate their points further with reference to a specific example and whilst this was not required, it may (as in this case) provide the full context for this answer.

(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Explain the role of flows of energy in the formation of a tombolo (8 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (d) 'Geology is the most significant influence on coastal landscapes.' To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)

(June 2019) Question 1 (d) 'Geology is the most significant influence on coastal landscapes.' To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)
(Mock Exemplars) Question 1 (a) How does climate change influence raised beaches?

Total mark for the essay question: 6-8/8 = A/A* grade (75%-100%)

Climate change is the long-term positive or negative change in the climate (temperature) of the Earth's lower atmosphere. A raised beach is an emergent landform (apears when sea level falls) which is composed of a former shore platform.

In the formation of a raised beach you would originally have a shore platform. Shore platforms are more likely to form where there is more resistant rock (such as at Flamborough Head). A wavecut notch is formed in the wave attack zone/small tidal range (mean high tide - mean low tide) and is most effective at <4m tidal range. As the resistant rock (e.g. limestone) cliff retreats the rock above the wave cut notch falls into the sea (mass movement) and accumulates; forming the shore platform. Cliff retreat and undercutting occurs as a result of geomorphic processes (sub-aerial weathering - freeze-thaw 9% increase as water freezes; erosion - wave pounding 30 tonnes/m2 and hydraulic action action 11,000/kg3, abrasion). As eustatic change occurs (which varies spatially) or sea level fall (which occurs as a result of a change in the climate - cooler temperatures) the shore platform will appear/emerge above the water. Most raised beaches were formed towards the end of the last ice age (Würm 11,700 years ago) and as a result of the Flandrian transgression. Relic cliffs will also form behind (above) the raised beach.

They are modified by weathering such as salt crystallisation (most effective at 26-28ºC and so dependent on climate). Also biological weathering, e.g. tree roots which unsettle ground and can cause further retreat of shore platform. Located example is Arran, Scotland or Portland Dorset.

(Mock Exemplars) Question 1 (a) How does climate change influence raised beaches?
(Mock Exemplars) Question 1 (d) Geology is the most significant impact on the formation of coastal landscapes’. To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 15/16 = A* grade (93.75%)

Geology is the study of rock’s properties and is one of many factors that can influence the formation of coastal landscapes with others being energy and climate. In this essay I will evaluate whether geology is the most significant impact on the formation of coastal landscapes.

Geology is characterised by lithology and structure. Lithology describes the physical and chemical composition of rocks. Some rock types, such as clay, have a weak lithology, with little resistance to erosion, weathering or mass movements. This is because the bonds between the particles that make up the rock are weaker. Basalt is a rock that has a stronger lithology because it is made up of dense interlocking crystals. Structure concerns the properties of individual rock types such as jointing, bedding and faulting. It also includes the permeability of rocks. In porous rocks water can be absorbed and stored - known as primary permeability. Carboniferous limestone is permeable but for reasons other than porosity. Water seeps into limestone because of its many joints. This is known as secondary permeability. The joints are enlarged easily by solution.

To agree with this statement, from Saltburn to Flamborough Head in Yorkshire geology plays a large role in impacting the formation of coastal landscapes. Erosion is a process which shapes a coastline and on this coastline rates of erosion vary due to variations in the resistance of geology. The discordant coastline can be seen in Filey Bay and Robin Hood’s Bay where a bay and headland have formed. Areas of relatively weak shale and clay experience erosion rates of 0.8 m per year on average, while the more resistant sandstones and limestones only erode at rates of less than 0.1 m per year. Robin Hood’s Bay is one bay on this discordant coastline where has been eroded into relatively weak shales with more resistant bands of sandstone either side forming the headlands of Ravenscar and Ness point.

Another point to agree with this statement is the influence of geology on Selwick's Bay where there are weaknesses in the structure such as large joints and faults. These are then exploited by erosive waves enlarging them to form caves and arches. One master joint in the chalk (has a weak lithology and is vulnerable to chemical weathering) has been enlarged. Other examples of geology having an impact on coastal landscapes is the fact that some rocks are more vulnerable to some types of weathering or erosion like carboniferous limestone and chalk (mainly composed of calcium carbonate) which are soluble in acids and so this rock can be weathered by carbonation.

To disagree with this statement, climate can be seen to have a larger impact on the formation of coastal landscapes in the Nile delta. The change in climate means that sea levels are rising and this increases the rate of erosion. The Nile Delta has a catchment of 3 million cubic km, with an annual rainfall of 600mm. Despite this the discharge is less than 3,000 cubic m/s, which is relatively low. The Nile caries a huge sediment load, and is it this which results in the formation of the Nile Delta when energy levels drop as it reaches the mouth.

To further disagree with this statement, in the Nile Delta the amount of energy is arguably also more impactful on the formation of coastal landscapes than geology. The energy in water (velocity) can determine the rate of erosion and is influenced by the energy of the prevailing winds. In the Nile Delta the northwesterly winds over the Mediterranean Sea for most of the year enhances the eastward movement of water and sediment. The estimated surface current ranges from 9.26 to 13.5 cm/s during the summer. This declines to 4.46 cm.s during the autumn, increasing sharply to 23.14 cm/s in winter due to strong winds, and declining again during calm spring weather to 8.4 cm/s.

To conclude, geology is one of many factors that impact on the formation of coastal landscapes. Geology could be considered the most significant factor, as demonstrated using the example of Flamborough Head. Energy and climate are also factors that impact on the formation of coastal landscapes.

(Mock Exemplars) Question 1 (d) Geology is the most significant impact on the formation of coastal landscapes’. To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)
What to remember when solving for IQR?

Sort all data.

What to remember when solving for IQR?
(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Explain how a sediment cell can be viewed as a system. (8 marks)

Indicative Content:AO1 - 8 marks

A thorough answer is likely to fully explain the sediment cell as a system of inputs, processes and outputs, include detail of the closed and open facets of a coastal sediment cell system and show a good understanding of dynamic equilibrium and feedback

A reasonable answer is likely to have some explanation of where the inputs into the system may have come from, will describe the processes and may have some indication of the outputs. It should include details of the closed facets of a coastal sediment cell

A basic answer will understand that a system is made up of inputs, processes and outputs and may be able to describe the inputs and processes in the system. Outputs are unlikely to be discussed.

Knowledge and understanding of how a sediment cell can be viewed as a system could potentially include:

  • Sediment cells are a stretch of the coastline and the nearshore area where the movement of material is self-contained.
  • Therefore, sediment cells are generally considered closed systems where sediment is not transferred from one cell to another.
  • Closed system consists of stores (sediment e.g. beaches, estuaries and nearshore zone), transfers (movement of sediment e.g. longshore drift).
  • Inputs and outputs are largely restricted to energy
  • Boundaries are determined by the shape of the coastline and topography, which largely prevent the transfer of sediment to adjacent cells.
  • Sediment cells also can be considered as open systems through winds and tidal currents transferring some sediment between cells.
  • Sediment can be sourced from fluvial and marine deposition, weathering and mass movement of cliffs
  • Understanding of how a system can be considered to be in a state of equilibrium or dynamic equilibrium where positive feedbacks disturb and negative feedbacks restore the equilibrium.
  • Sediment cells operate on a range of spatial (cells within cells) and temporal scales (days to millennia).

This question was focused on AO1 and the majority of candidates were able to achieve L2 as they could describe the inputs, processes/stores/flows and outputs. The best answers discussed dynamic equilibrium and were able to describe an example in the system where this occurred. However, many mentioned dynamic equilibrium without explaining what it is.

(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Explain how a sediment cell can be viewed as a system. (8 marks)
(June 2018) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 1, Ediz Hook, Washington. With reference to Fig. 1, explain the role of flows of materials in forming landform A. (3 marks)

3 x 1 for analysing Fig. 1 to explain the role of flows of materials in forming landform A (the spit)

Max 2 marks from any one section

Source:

  • Terrestrial (included weathering, mass movement and wind-blown materials from source outside Fig)
  • Fluvial inputs
  • Off shore

Movement of materials across the landform

  • Longshore drift of materials
  • Aeolian processes (saltation/traction)

Deposition of Materials

  • Loss of energy - so materials deposited
  • Sheltered side deposition
  • Possible development of salt marshes

Modification

  • Wind direction change /Wave refraction/secondary wave direction results in curved shape at the end of the spit.

As a whole, many candidates did not understand the requirements of the question - needing to describe the flows within the landform and instead they gave a general description of the landform.Many candidates named this landform as a tombolo rather than a spit - but were credited for correctly identifying flows along the landform as they are created in the same manner.Most candidates were able to describe longshore drift as the main flow along the landform. The best candidates knew that deposition occurred in lower energy environments and many could explain that the re-curved end formed due to a different wind/wave direction.

(June 2018) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 1, Ediz Hook, Washington. With reference to Fig. 1, explain the role of flows of materials in forming landform A. (3 marks)
(June 2018) Question 1 (d) Using a case study, assess the relative importance of the different physical factors influencing the landscape of a high energy coastline. (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of how physical factors influence the landscape of a high energy coastline could potentially include:

  • Geology will likely influence the high energy coastline through differences in rock resistance affecting the rates of erosion, weathering and mass movement. Differences in rock resistance as a result of rock structure, alignment and lithology.
  • Shape of coastline and beach may influence marine processes such as wave refraction and therefore affect geomorphic processes.
  • The formation, development and breaking of different types of waves will influence the energy arriving at the coastline and where it is concentrated. This will be determined by weather conditions elsewhere, the fetch and the seabed topography.
  • Winds affect the waves arriving at the coastline through variations in their speed, direction and frequency. These will influence rates of geomorphic processes on different areas of the coastline.
  • Tidal cycles and ranges influence the areas affected spatially and temporally by different marine and subaerial processes.
  • Global pattern of ocean currents will influence the energy arriving at the coastline.
  • Physical factors influence geomorphic processes which in turn modify and form landforms.
  • Physical factors (e.g. geology of new coastline, shape of coastline etc.), and sediment budgets may also be modified by other physical factors.

AO2 - 8 marks

Apply knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the relative importance of physical factors have on influencing a landscape of a high energy coastline could potentially include:

  • Assessment of the relative importance of physical factors on influencing the landscape, geomorphic processes and other physical factors in the landscape.
  • Influences may be creating new landforms, destroying, reshaping or modifying landforms.
  • Influences may be altering of the rate, scale and location of geomorphic processes.
  • Sediment budgets and inter-relationships between landforms may be influenced
  • Consideration of the "extent" could include scale (both spatially and temporally), significance and/or range of changes
  • The influence to the landscape system as a whole

Many candidates correctly identified geology, fetch and wave energy as correct physical factors - but then only reached L2 for giving generalised answers e.g. discussing hard and soft rock along a discordant coastline without being able to correctly explain the differential erosional processes that have formed landforms such as bays and headlands along a named section of coastline.North Yorkshire was widely used as an example and the best answers were able to discuss the discordant coastline with chalk headlands and bays formed in softer clays, such as Flamborough Head and Robin Hoods Bay. However, they also discussed the massive chalk deposits and understood that even within these relatively hard rocks there are structures such as faults and bedding planes, which would allow the formation of landforms such as caves, arches, geos and blowholes on a high energy erosional coastline. They discussed where the energy came from i.e. the 1500km fetch and the destructive nature of the waves that hit the coastline and how these interact with the geology to form the landforms seen along the coast. Tidal range was discussed, with regards to the extent of the concentration of erosion along the more concordant coastline around Flamborough Head, and the subsequent wave cut notch and wave cut/shore platform. They also discussed the lack of fluvial sediment input into the system and the effect this has on the lack of or narrow beaches that occur in the area, and understood that the erosional power of the waves would not be dispersed by running over a wide beach. Previous climates and the changes that have occurred since the last ice age e.g. sea level change were also discussed.Candidates were often able to describe one or more physical factor and so could reach AO1 L2 or even L3, but then could only give superficial AO2 comments such as ‘geology is important’ The very best answers understood that these physical factors all interact to give the coastal landforms seen and understood that geology was the guiding factor in influencing the landscape.

(June 2018) Question 1 (d) Using a case study, assess the relative importance of the different physical factors influencing the landscape of a high energy coastline. (16 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Explain the role of flows of energy in the formation of a tombolo. (8 marks)

Indicative Content:AO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the role of flows of energy in the formation of tombolos could potentially include:

  • There is controversy over the exact formation - some formed by drift aligned features, others through sea level rise
  • Prevailing winds determine direction and power of waves that would create conditions suitable for deposition
  • Wave refraction around an off-shore island causing a wave-energy shadow where increased deposition occurs on the landward side
  • Longshore drift would be caused by waves causing movement of sediment through energy absorbed by winds
  • A spit starts to form growing seawards until they reach and adjoin an offshore island
  • The resulting beaches may be covered during high tide e.g. Lindisfarne, Northumberland or St Agnes, Scilly Isles
  • Chesil Beach, Dorset is a tombolo formed in a more complex manner. Most likely the beach developed as a barrier island and moved onshore during the Flandrian Transgression as sea levels rose, enabling waves to move material onshore

There were some excellent examples here of candidates that could discuss a range of flows of energy (including kinetic, gravitational potential, solar) that would contribute to the formation of a tombolo. The very best answers were also able to discuss different ways of tombolo formation including a discussion of Chesil Beach and the Flandrian Transgression while also maintaining the focus on the role of energy. However, all too often candidates wrote about ‘energy’ in a generic form or did not go beyond high/low energy. In some instances candidates didn’t address the notion of energy at all through their answer and these were given lower marks.

(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Explain the role of flows of energy in the formation of a tombolo. (8 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 1, Isle of Skye, Scotland, UK; an area that has experienced climate change. With reference to Fig. 1, explain the role of one geomorphic process in the formation of landform A. (3 marks)

AO2 - 3 marks

3 x 1 for analysing Fig. 1 to explain the role of any one geomorphic process (such as weathering, erosion, mass movement) in the formation of landform A (abandoned cliff). Candidates may explain the initial formation of the cliff; this is acceptable.

Geomorphic processes could include types of erosion, weathering and mass movement amongst others.

Water may enter cracks in the rock. When this water freezes, there is subsequent expansion. This increases pressure on the rock and it breaks apart.

  • Waves eroded resistant rock through pounding, hydraulic action and abrasion during inter-glacial periods
  • Mechanical weathering e.g. freeze-thaw evidenced by block disintegration. Rainwater accessing cracks in the rock face and freezing overnight. Ice takes up 9% more volume than water putting increased pressure on cliff face and continual repetition forces joints and bedding planes to expand
  • Biological weathering with growth of vegetation on cliff face through chelation and the release of humic acid from decomposing vegetation. Likely to be a very slow process due to Scotland’s low temperatures
  • Mass movement as cliff collapses and retreats landward - likely to be in the past as vegetated slopes indicate stability

The majority of candidates were able to identify landform A as an abandoned cliff and explain how a geomorphic process influenced its formation. The most successful candidates discussed processes such as freeze-thaw weathering and explained each stage in succession. However, a number of candidates did not identify a geomorphic process at all in their answer; instead focusing on isostatic or eustatic change. Furthermore many candidates named more than one process but did not explain any; simply naming a process did not gain credit as the command word of the question is to explain.

(June 2019) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 1, Isle of Skye, Scotland, UK; an area that has experienced climate change. With reference to Fig. 1, explain the role of one geomorphic process in the formation of landform A. (3 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (d) ‘Geology is the most significant influence on coastal landscapes’. To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the influence geology has on coastal landscapes could potentially include:

  • Lithology determining resistance of rock and type e.g. clays, basalt, granite, chalk, carboniferous limestone
  • Comments about the vulnerability of rock types to particular erosion or weathering would be relevant e.g. granite to hydrolysis, or limestone to carbonation
  • Structure determining porosity and permeability
  • Structure and tectonic movement determining dip of bedding planes
  • Erosional landforms with steep profiles found with resistant rocks e.g. chalk or limestone headlands in discordant coastlines
  • Shore platforms usually found with seaward dip of 1-3°
  • Master joints required for geos and blowholes
  • Examples could be applied from any coastline and at a variety of scales e.g. macro could be a stretch of a particular coastline or micro could be a single landform within a coastline

AO2 - 8 marks

Apply knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the relative significance of geology shaping coastal landscapes could potentially include:

  • In the Nile delta geology plays a minimal part in the provision of fine sand to the delta system. More influential is the sheltered, low energy environment allowing the build up of sediment to formanalluvial delta
  • From Saltburn to Flamborough Head, UK geology plays a significant role in formation of bays and headlands, although these would not form without a discordant coastline. Master joints open up weaknesses for formation of geos, and blowholes at Selwick’s Bay as well as lines of weaknesses to be exploited overtime to create stacks
  • Geology contributes to formation of headlands e.g. the resistant chalk at Flamborough Head creating near vertical cliffs which is more significant than the 1600km fetch from the N which creates differential erosion exposing the headlands further
  • Role of sea level rise and fall in formation of emergent and submergent landforms can be judged against the geological influences. The geology at Knightsbridge estuary, Devon has very little influence in the formation of a ria in comparison to sea level rise, which floods the valley deepening the channel despite increased fluvial deposition during the Flandrian Transgression, which shape the ria more significantly that the surrounding geology
  • Candidates may use case studies from 1.4 to evidence their claims and judge the significance of geology alongside the influence of deliberate human interference or economic development

There was evidence of some excellent teaching in the answers to this question. Candidates were able to demonstrate thorough and well developed knowledge and understanding about the role of geology with the best answers covering rock structure, porosity and permeability amongst other factors. Many candidates were also able to use place specific detail to illustrate their points and quote statistics such as the rate of erosion to support their knowledge around geology. The question also required candidates to be analytical and evaluative when considering if geology is the most significant influence. While a number of candidates were able to say how different factors changed the landscape, for example, by linking to landform formation; the discussion of the significance was lacking in depth at times and this should be an area of focus for future teaching.

(June 2019) Question 1 (d) ‘Geology is the most significant influence on coastal landscapes’. To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)
(June 2020) Question 1 (a) Explain the influence of climate change on raised beaches. (8 marks)

Indicative Content:AO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of how climate change could influence raised beaches could potentially include:

  • The influence of past climate;
    • during inter-glacial periods the raised beach would have been a shore platform being eroded by abrasion at high tide and weathered by organic acids from molluscs at low tide
    • as sea level dropped when global temperatures lowered, abrasion would be less influential as the depth of water and power of the waves also reduced until even at high tide, the shore platform was no longer covered and a raised beach was formed
    • eustatic/isostatic change as climate changes over the centuries
  • The influence of present climate;
    • higher seasonal temperatures would encourage greater rates of chemical weathering; Van’t Hoff’s Law
    • precipitation would enable organic acids to weather the rock if vegetated.
    • if the raised beach was exposed, salt crystallisation would weather it slowly, although this is most effective in temperatures of 26-28°C
  • The influence of future climate change could also be relevant

Section A consists of two level marked questions; 1a/2a/3a, an explain question for 8 marks and 1d/2d/3d, requires candidates to assess for 16 marks. While it was evident that candidates were aware of the assessment objectives and layout of the paper, 1a and 2a continue to be areas for improvement. Whilst candidates knew the formation of the landform named, they were generally less confident on the influence of climate change on it; this was particularly the case in 2a. Although the command word is ‘explain’, a number of candidates focused instead on describing the landform or indeed explaining how it was formed but without reference to the influence of climate change. Many responses would have benefitted from the inclusion of Geographical terminology and a greater exploration of the points being made in order for them to be considered well-developed.Furthermore, within the 16 mark essay question, at times candidates needed to discuss their ideas in more depth before moving on ensuring they had demonstrated comprehensive knowledge and understanding of the inter-relationships before assessing the extent to which they are inter-related. This question did prove for many candidates particularly within Coastal Systems, where the best responses focused on case studies that included spits and salt marshes. Many candidates instead referred to the Nile Delta and whilst relevant, they struggled with the complexity of this coastal environment and often did not therefore link it to the question being posed.

(June 2020) Question 1 (a) Explain the influence of climate change on raised beaches. (8 marks)
(June 2020) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 2 in the Resource Booklet, Eastbourne, Sussex, UK. Using Fig. 2, suggest how management strategy D could influence the coastal landscape. (4 marks)

AO2 - 4 marks

4 x 1 for analysing Fig. 2 to explain the effect of management strategy A (beach recharge) on the coastal landscape.

  • Beach length increased and height increased with rainbowing from tanker.
  • Recharge provides more material to be moved by longshore drift, protecting the beach
  • Wave energy absorbed by growing beach reduce rates of erosion
  • More sediment provided for longshore drift, which might reduce risk of cliff collapse or mass movement further down drift, however presence of groynes might limit this movement
  • The gradient of the beach may be changed

Basic geographical skills such as using a scale bar to measure distance and identify a landform from a resource was generally answered well by the majority of candidates. When explaining advantages of the presentation technique, candidates would benefit from ensuring their point is explained to say why it is an advantage rather than just stating that it is. Candidates can write this very concisely, however, it does need to be evident in their answer if the question stem is ‘explain’. It is also worth noting this exam technique is also relevant for 1c/2c/3c where the candidates had to suggest how the management strategy or the human activity could influence the landscape. Once again candidates needed to make it clear what the influence on the landscape would be rather than just saying what would happen such as ‘reduce wave erosion’.

(June 2020) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 2 in the Resource Booklet, Eastbourne, Sussex, UK. Using Fig. 2, suggest how management strategy D could influence the coastal landscape. (4 marks)
(June 2020) Question 1 (d) Using a case study, assess the extent to which landforms within a low energy coastal environment are inter-related. (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of how landforms within a low energy coastal environment are inter-related could potentially include:

  • Long shore drift redistribute sediment changing size and shape of sediment and therefore landforms as well as creating new landforms
  • Inter-related landforms could include discussion of spits, bars, salt marsh, delta lobes, off-shore bars
  • Some landforms less inter-related due to unique features of the system e.g. protection from wind or waves limiting sediment supply
  • Credit annotated maps of regions showing flows, processes and landforms as well as inter-related aspects
  • Place study examples could include Nile delta, Mississippi, Humber estuary

AO2 - 8 marks

Apply knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which landforms within a low energy coastal environment are inter-related could potentially include:

  • For example; Nile Delta
  • Seasonal changes in inter-relations e.g. summer winds from NW move more sediment through suspension from Nile delta to longshore drift currents to create curved barrier bars e.g. from Rosetta distributary to Port Said
  • New landforms being created e.g. curved barrier bars and relating lagoon at the north of the Manzala distributary which will continue to change over time as it is filled with sediment
  • Seasonal changes of the strength of inter- relations e.g. in winter winds are much stronger leading to more erosive waves which remove sediment from the front of the delta to create underwater sand bars
  • Some landforms less inter-related e.g. to the West of Abu Qir headland, crescentic bar systems on the beaches influenced by local rip currents rather than longshore drift which is a stronger factor in linking the coastal system together. In comparison to the East of the same headland longshore bars are strongly influenced by eastward longshore drift currents
  • Arguments related to other factors that influence the strength of the inter-relationships may be relevant

Section A consists of two level marked questions; 1a/2a/3a, an explain question for 8 marks and 1d/2d/3d, requires candidates to assess for 16 marks. While it was evident that candidates were aware of the assessment objectives and layout of the paper, 1a and 2a continue to be areas for improvement. Whilst candidates knew the formation of the landform named, they were generally less confident on the influence of climate change on it; this was particularly the case in 2a. Although the command word is ‘explain’, a number of candidates focused instead on describing the landform or indeed explaining how it was formed but without reference to the influence of climate change. Many responses would have benefitted from the inclusion of Geographical terminology and a greater exploration of the points being made in order for them to be considered well-developed.Furthermore, within the 16 mark essay question, at times candidates needed to discuss their ideas in more depth before moving on ensuring they had demonstrated comprehensive knowledge and understanding of the inter-relationships before assessing the extent to which they are inter-related. This question did prove for many candidates particularly within Coastal Systems, where the best responses focused on case studies that included spits and salt marshes. Many candidates instead referred to the Nile Delta and whilst relevant, they struggled with the complexity of this coastal environment and often did not therefore link it to the question being posed.

(June 2020) Question 1 (d) Using a case study, assess the extent to which landforms within a low energy coastal environment are inter-related. (16 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Explain the influence of sea level rise and geomorphic processes in the formation of rias. (8 marks)

Indicative Content:AO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the influence of sea level rise and geomorphic processes in the formation of rias could potentially include:

  • Rias are formed as sea level rises in a warming climate
  • The sea level change that caused the submergence of a river valley may be either eustatic or isostatic
  • As sea level rises, low–lying coastal environments become submerged and river valleys are drowned to form rias
  • They typically have gently sloping sides, variable depth and a winding plan form reflecting the original route of the river and its valley, formed by fluvial erosion within the channel and subaerial processes on the valley sides
  • Rejuvenation in river valleys as sea level fell during an earlier, colder period may have resulted in increased valley deepening before submergence occurred
  • During interglacial periods, when sea levels rose, further deposition would have occurred as the rivers had less surplus energy for erosion
  • Increased water depth in rias is likely to be associated with larger waves and greater wave energy, thereby increasing rates of erosion and further modification.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Explain the influence of sea level rise and geomorphic processes in the formation of rias. (8 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 1, a coastal landscape in the United Kingdom. With reference to Fig. 1, explain which geomorphic processes are the most influential in forming landform A. (3 marks)

AO2 - 3 marks

3x1 for analysing Fig. 1 to explain which geomorphic processes are the most influential in forming landform A (the arch).

  • Wave erosion is likely to be the most influential geomorphic process in the formation of the arch in the photograph as waves breaking on the exposed headland are able to concentrate their energy on the resistant rock causing corrasion/pounding/hydraulic action.
  • The roof of the arch in the photograph is highly susceptible to weathering via freeze-thaw and salt crystallisation as this section of hard rock is exposed, mass movement of the weakened material would all be expected to influence the formation of the arch. Tidal cycles of wetting and drying (hydration) leads to water layer weathering, creating this arch. Weathering targets weaknesses in the headland through horizontal rock strata (joints) and vertical cracks as seen in the photograph and then create this arch.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (c) Study Fig. 1, a coastal landscape in the United Kingdom. With reference to Fig. 1, explain which geomorphic processes are the most influential in forming landform A. (3 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (d) ‘Human activity influences coastal landscape systems more than physical factors’. To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the influence of human activity and physical factors in coastal landscape systems could potentially include:

  • Port development or tourist resort development reducing input of sediment from coastal erosion along developed coastlines
  • Breakwaters/harbour wall construction can reduce wave energy and obstruct longshore sediment movements
  • Off-shore dredging to obtain gravel for the construction industry can lead to sediment imbalance off-shore
  • Winds (speed, direction and frequency) affecting aeolian processes
  • Waves influencing erosion, transportation and depositional processes
  • Tides (cycles and range) influencing processes and landforms
  • Geology (lithology and structure) influencing rates of processes
  • Ocean currents influencing water temperature and sediment supply
  • Credit any relevant human activities and physical factors influencing coastal landscape systems, particularly energy and material flows.

AO2 - 8 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which human activity influences coastal landscape systems more than physical factors could potentially include:

  • Disturbance of systems in equilibrium and the resultant positive or negative feedback
  • How human activity can affect the physical factors in a landscape system and this then affects the overall landscape system balance e.g. groyne installation can trap material being moved by longshore drift increasing beach width and depth but, also causes sediment starvation downdrift leading to increased erosion rates
  • Changes to processes, material and/or energy flows and how the extent to which these are influenced by physical and human factors e.g. whether increased wave activity will affect energy flows in the landscape system as much as an offshore breaker
  • Consideration of the “extent” could include scale, significance and/or range of the changes
  • The significance of the changes to the landscape system as a whole by human activity and physical factors as well as on individual flows and stores e.g. physical factors constantly influence flows when often human activity is targeted at influencing these physical factors
  • Consideration of the differences between landscape systems with different levels of human activity and different degrees of influence from physical factors
  • Extent of the influence of human activity and physical factors and which they would consider greater in coastal landscape systems
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (d) ‘Human activity influences coastal landscape systems more than physical factors’. To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)
Summary of ELSS
  • Water and carbon are vital for life on Earth.
  • Water and carbon move between the land, oceans and atmosphere through open and closed systems.
  • The water and carbon cycles operate as systems with inputs, stores and outputs.
  • There are distinctive processes and pathways of water and carbon in their cycles.
  • Case studies are required of two contrasting locations, a tropical rainforest and the Arctic tundra, to illustrate their water and carbon cycles, physical and human factors causing change to the cycles and strategies to manage the water and carbon cycles.
  • Human factors can disturb and enhance natural processes and stores in the water and carbon cycles.
  • There are short-term and long-term changes to the water and carbon cycles caused by both natural and human factors.
  • There are various techniques to research and monitor changes in the water and carbon cycles.
  • The water and carbon cycles are linked and interdependent.
  • Global management strategies aim to protect the water and carbon cycles.
Summary of ELSS
State three ways water is important for life on Earth.

Biological, e.g. photosynthesis, transporting substances within organisms; environmental, e.g. moderating temperatures by the oceans absorbing, storing, transporting and releasing heat energy; and economic, e.g. power generation, irrigation of crops, use in manufacturing.

State three ways water is important for life on Earth.
Why is atmospheric water such an important element in the water cycle despite it being such as relatively small store?

Water moves rapidly in and out of the atmosphere allowing significant volumes of water to transfer from one location to others such as from oceans to land.

Why is atmospheric water such an important element in the water cycle despite it being such as relatively small store?
Why is the burning of fossil fuels such a concern in terms of carbon cycling?

Burning fossil fuels releases carbon in the form of CO2 and so unlocks carbon that otherwise would stay in storage for millions of years. CO2 is a significant greenhouse gas due to its ability to trap radiation within the atmosphere and contribute to global warming.

Why is the burning of fossil fuels such a concern in terms of carbon cycling?
Why do interception rates for vegetation vary with the season?

In the summer, vegetation is in full growth so has the maximum surface area of leaves and stems. Deciduous trees shed their leaves in the winter. The same contrast can be seen in regions where there is a marked dry and wet season such as semi-arid areas.

Why do interception rates for vegetation vary with the season?
What is the significance of the contrast between human use of biomass and fossil fuels?

Biomass use leads to no net addition of CO2 to the atmosphere whereas the burning of fossil fuels releases carbon held for millions of years in very long-term stores.

What is the significance of the contrast between human use of biomass and fossil fuels?
What is the significance of the oceans in carbon sequestration?

The oceans are where vast amounts of carbon are in long-term storage. Ocean currents carry dissolved carbon to great depths where it stays for centuries. When marine organisms, e.g. phytoplankton and any organisms with shells die they sink to the ocean floor taking with them carbon in their bodies.

What is the significance of the oceans in carbon sequestration?
Why are short-term changes to the water cycle of significance for human activities?

Extreme events such as flooding can threaten lives in any location. Where rainfall is highly seasonal, e.g. monsoon climate, agriculture can come under serious stress from either flooding or drought. Flooding can also spread water-borne disease and lead to increased risk from insects such as mosquitoes.

Why are short-term changes to the water cycle of significance for human activities?
What is meant by the term ‘ecosystem services’?

Ecosystem services' are benefits (tangible and intangible) that human activities receive from natural environments, e.g. food, water, flood regulation, coastal protection, disease prevention and recreation.

What is meant by the term ‘ecosystem services’?
What is photosynthesis?

The process whereby plants combine carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air, water and minerals and using sunlight make complex molecules such as glucose.

What is photosynthesis?
What is respiration?

The process in living organisms where the intake of oxygen oxidises organic substances to produce energy and release carbon dioxide.

What is respiration?
What is transpiration?

The movement of water vapour molecules out of plants through 'pores' known as stomata. It maintains a plant's internal condition as regards water content and helps cool the plant.

What is transpiration?
What is the atmosphere?

The thin envelope of gases (mainly nitrogen and oxygen) that surrounds the Earth.

What is the atmosphere?
What is the biosphere?

The thin zone in which life occurs. It extends only a few hundred metres above the surface, penetrates not very far below ground but deeper into the oceans.

What is the biosphere?
Define ubiquitous.

Ubiquitous means being present, found or appearing everywhere.

Define ubiquitous.
What is evapotranspiration?

Combined loss of water at the surface through evaporation and transpiration by plants.

What is evapotranspiration?
Explain what the water table is.

The water table is the boundary between saturated and unsaturated conditions underground.

Explain what the water table is.
What is run-off?

The movement of water across the land surface.

What is run-off?
What is groundwater flow?

The horizontal movement/flow of water within aquifers.

What is groundwater flow?
What is oxidation?

A chemical process that weathers certain types of rock and involves the absorption of oxygen from either the atmosphere or water by rock minerals.

What is oxidation?
What is a closed system?

A system with inputs and outputs of energy, but without any movement of materials across system boundaries.

What is a closed system?
What is an open system?

A type of system whose boundaries are open to both inputs and outputs of energy and matter.

What is an open system?
What is equilibrium?

A long-term balance between inputs and outputs in a system.

What is equilibrium?
What is dynamic equilibrium?

A system displaying unrepeated average states through time.

What is dynamic equilibrium?
What is reservoir?

A store of either water, materials or energy.

What is reservoir?
What is water cycle budget?

The annual volume of movement of water by precipitation, evapotranspiration, run-off etc. between stores such as oceans, permeable rocks, ice sheets, vegetation, soil etc.

What is water cycle budget?
What is ablation?

The loss of ice and snow, especially from a glacier, through melting, evaporation and sublimation.

What is ablation?
What is sublimation?

The phase change of water from ice to vapour.

What is sublimation?
What is condensation?

The phase change of water vapour (gas) to water (liquid).

What is condensation?
What is infiltration?

The vertical movement of rainwater through the soil.

What is infiltration?
What is an aquifer?

A water-bearing band of porous or permeable rock, e.g. chalk and some sandstones (store and transmit water).

What is an aquifer?
What is sinks (water/carbon)?

Anything that absorbs more of a particular substance than it releases, e.g. the oceans act as a sink for CO2.

What is sinks (water/carbon)?
What is carbonate rocks?

Rocks comprising carbonate minerals (e.g. CaCO3) such as limestone and chalk.

What is carbonate rocks?
What is residence times?

The length of time that a molecule of water or carbon dioxide etc. remains in natural storage (e.g. in the atmosphere or oceans).

What is residence times?
What are carbonaceous rocks?

Rocks mainly comprising the fossilised remains of plants, e.g. coal, lignite.

What are carbonaceous rocks?
What is natural sequestration?

Sequestration is the capture and long-term storage of carbon from the atmosphere. It occurs naturally but humans are trying to find ways of achieving this in order to reduce levels of atmospheric CO2.

What is natural sequestration?
What is phytoplankton?

Phytoplankton are tiny, sometimes microscopic, plant organisms that float and drift in the oceans, capturing the Sun's energy through photosynthesis.

What is phytoplankton?
What is decomposition?

Two key factors are heat and moisture.

What is decomposition?
Define peat.

Peat is partly decomposed organic matter that has accumulated in waterlogged and there anaerobic conditions.

Define peat.
What is water balance?

The relationship between precipitation, streamflow, evapotranspiration, and soil moisture and groundwater storage in a drainage basin over a year.

What is water balance?
What is dew point?

Dew-point is the temperature at which air becomes fully saturated. Further cooling results in condensation.

What is dew point?
What is cumuliform clouds?

Cumulus clouds have flat bases and extend vertically up through the atmosphere. Some can be 10-15 km from top to bottom.

What is cumuliform clouds?
What is stratiform clouds?

Stratus clouds exist as a widespread dense horizontal layer.

What is stratiform clouds?
What is advection?

The horizontal movement of an air mass which often results in either heating or cooling.

What is advection?
What is cirrus clouds?

Cirrus clouds are made up of ice crystals and have a wispy appearance.

What is cirrus clouds?
What is lapse rate?

What is lapse rate?
What is adiabatic expansion?

The expansion of a parcel of air due to a crease in pressure. Expansion causes cooling.

What is adiabatic expansion?
What is convection?

The motion of a gas or liquid which when warmed rises until eventually it cools and sinks in a continuous circulation.

What is convection?
What is throughflow?

Water flowing horizontally through the soil to stream and river channels.

What is throughflow?
What is infiltration capacity?

The maximum rate at which water, under the pull of gravity, soaks into the soil.

What is infiltration capacity?
What is overland flow?

Rainfall that runs off the ground surface either because the soil is saturated or the intensity of rainfall exceeds the soil's infiltration capacity.

What is overland flow?
What is recharge?

Net input of water into an aquifer causing a rise in the water table.

What is recharge?
What is calving?

Calving occurs when a glacier reaches the sea and ice masses break off and float away.

What is calving?
What is anthropogenic?

Anthropogenic means caused by human activities.

What is anthropogenic?
What is biomass?

Biomass is biological material derived from living or recently living organisms. In the context of power generation it is usually plant material.

What is biomass?
What is Biogenic CO2?

Biogenic CO2 is produced by the respiration and decomposition of organisms in the soil.

What is Biogenic CO2?
What is monoculture?

The cultivation of a single crop.

What is monoculture?
What is heat balance?

The difference between inputs of solar energy to the Earth-atmosphere system and energy outputs from terrestrial radiation and gases in the atmosphere. Currently inputs exceed outputs and the global climate responds by warming.

What is heat balance?
What is absolute humidity?

The mass of water vapour in a given volume of air.

What is absolute humidity?
What is relative humidity?

The mass of water vapour in a given volume of air as a ratio of the mass needed to saturate it.

What is relative humidity?
What is shifting cultivation?

A traditional method of cultivation in tropical forests which involves rotation of land rather than rotation of crops.

What is shifting cultivation?
What is active layer?

The near surface layer in a periglacial environment which seasonally freezes and thaws.

What is active layer?
What is syncline?

A downfolded, basin-like geological structure.

What is syncline?
What is artesian aquifer?

A confined aquifer containing groundwater that when tapped will rise to the surface under its own pressure.

What is artesian aquifer?
What is artesian pressure?

The hydrostatic pressure exerted on groundwater in a confined aquifer occupying a synclinal structure.

What is artesian pressure?
What is potentiometric surface?

An imaginary surface that defines the theoretical level to which water would rise in a confined aquifer.

What is potentiometric surface?
What is carbon capture and storage (ccs)?

The removal of CO2 from emissions by thermal power stations and its storage in disused oil and gas wells underground.

What is carbon capture and storage (ccs)?
What is carbon fertilisation?

Rising CO2 levels in the atmosphere which increase photosynthesis and stimulate plant growth.

What is carbon fertilisation?
What is diurnal change?

Change in temperature throughout the day.

What is diurnal change?
Define cryosphere.

The cryosphere is any area where water exists as snow and/or ice. This can be on land, frozen lakes and rivers and sea ice.

Define cryosphere.
What is permafrost?

Permanently frozen soil and regolith.

What is permafrost?
What is net primary productivity (npp)?

The rate at which plants accumulate energy in the form of organic matter taking into account the energy used in respiration.

What is net primary productivity (npp)?
What is photoperiod?

Length of day, i.e. from sunrise to sunset.

What is photoperiod?
What is desertification?

The reduction in agricultural capacity due to overexploitation of resources and natural processes such as drought. Only in extreme cases does it result in desert-like conditions.

What is desertification?
What is land degradation?

The deterioration of land suitability for agriculture by soil erosion, desertification and salinisation.

What is land degradation?
What is salinisation?

The accumulation of salts in soil.

What is salinisation?
What is overcultivation?

Cultivation which, given environmental resources, is not sustainable in the long term and is evidenced by declining yields, soil exhaustion and soil erosion.

What is overcultivation?
What is overgrazing?

Excessive grazing of land by livestock which destroys or degrades pasture and is not sustainable.

What is overgrazing?
What are carbon credits?

Allowances that permit given levels of CO2 emissions by businesses. Excess emissions must be covered by trading carbon credits.

What are carbon credits?
What are carbon offsets?

Market-based approach to limiting carbon emissions. Businesses receive annual carbon quotas (credits). These can be sold/bought on international carbon markets.

What are carbon offsets?
What is cap and trade?

An internal scheme to control carbon emissions. A market-based solution to climate change where polluters either cut their emissions or incur extra costs by buying tradable carbon credits.

What is cap and trade?
(June 2018) Question 4 (a) (i) Study Fig. 4, precipitation totals across mainland USA in August 2016. With reference to Fig. 4, suggest how variations in precipitation totals influence processes in the water cycle. (4 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 3/4 = A grade (75%)

Greater precipitation means greater levels of run-off as permeable ground becomes saturated quicker, making it impermeable, and already impermeable ground allows more water to run off. This type of run-off is likely to be seen in locations such as south western states like Florida, where precipitation levels are around 330mm. In more western but central states where precipitation is around 100mm (between 0mm and 170mm) run-off process will most likely be seen only on already impermeable ground such as concrete, and the low levels of precipitation will allow for more rainfall to percolate into the ground and allow for processes such as throughflow and ground waterflow.

The candidate gained marks for giving a correct place from the map where rainfall was high leading to more run-off and 2 development marks for understanding that the soil becomes saturated and so acts as though it is impermeable.The majority of candidates were able to gain these marks for similar comments.To improve this response the candidate should have been able to explain how this led to a specific type of overland flow – in this case saturated overland flow to gain the fourth mark.

(June 2018) Question 4 (a) (i) Study Fig. 4, precipitation totals across mainland USA in August 2016. With reference to Fig. 4, suggest how variations in precipitation totals influence processes in the water cycle. (4 marks)
(June 2018) Question 4 (a) (ii) Study Fig. 4, precipitation totals across mainland USA in August 2016. Explain three limitations of presenting rainfall data using choropleth maps (3 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 3/4 = A grade (75%)

The choropleth map of the USA has a graduated colour scale therefore it is difficult to calculate the precise amount of rainfall in any given location. The choropleth map also implies stark variations in the amount of rainfall between different regions within states. In reality, changes in precipitation are likely to be far more gradual than the map implies. Therefore the map gives us an inaccurate representation of the data. The regions on the choropleth map are also quite large, e.g. in some cases there are two or three different shaded regions within one state. This may therefore disguise considerable variations in rainfall patterns within these regions, e.g. on either side of a mountain, relief rainfall will create considerable differentiation in total relief rainfall. This may obscure the true pattern of relief in the USA.

The candidate gained marks for explaining: the difficulty in interpreting the value of areal units due to the graduated (sliding) scale; the abrupt changes at the boundaries of areas and; the inability to show variations within an area.

(June 2018) Question 4 (a) (ii) Study Fig. 4, precipitation totals across mainland USA in August 2016. Explain three limitations of presenting rainfall data using choropleth maps (3 marks)
(June 2018) Question 4 (b) Examine how feedback loops can affect the processes and stores within the carbon cycle. (10 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 3/4 = A grade (75%)

The carbon cycle is the process whereby carbon flows between the atmosphere, biosphere, ocean and soils which can range in speed via the slow or fast carbon cycle. In recent years the volume of carbon in the atmosphere has increased due to the increased burning of fossil fuels, emitting 100 billion tonnes of carbon into the atmosphere every year. Negative feedback loops can work to sequester more carbon dioxide by carbon fertilisation. This involves increasing photosynthesis rates of plants and phytoplankton, which will increase carbon dioxide of carbon stored in the biosphere, extracting carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Increased carbon dioxide dissolving into the ocean can facilitate increased carbon dioxide stored in the ocean, thus reducing anthropogenic carbon dioxide concentrations. These negative feedback loops work to reverse the changes increased burning of fossil fuels is having on the carbon cycle.

However, positive feedback loops could result in a further carbon disequilibrium, increasing the volume of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, therefore exacerbating the effects of global warming. This process can occur as increased carbon dioxide a greenhouse gas, increases greenhouse effect which results in greater terrestrial radiation, increasing global temperatures. As a result this will increase the activity of decomposers who thrive in warm, humid environments. Decomposers break down dead organic matter, releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, thus increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Increased temperatures can also result in the melting of permafrost, releasing around 7 to 40 million tonnes of carbon into the atmosphere each year. Increased temperatures results in permafrost ranging from a carbon sink to a carbon source furthermore, increased carbon levels results in increased carbon dioxide dissolving in the ocean which causes ocean acidification. This threatens the livelihoods of phytoplankton, who sequester more than 50% of all carbon dioxide emitted from fossil fuels.

Positive feedback loops could result in dramatic increases in anthropogenic carbon dioxide pushing the carbon cycle into disequilibrium, increasing the greenhouse effect and thus having drastic effects on the world as we know it.

The candidate has provided a comprehensive answer in terms of both knowledge and understanding and the application of this. The candidate discusses positive and negative feedback loops, shows an understanding of the triggers that cause feedback to occur and the changes that happen in a variety of carbon stores. They understand that the global carbon store is currently in disequilibrium and that this is due to the burning of fossil fuels.

(June 2018) Question 4 (b) Examine how feedback loops can affect the processes and stores within the carbon cycle. (10 marks)
(June 2018) Question 4 (c) Assess the extent to which deforestation and farming affect the water and carbon cycles of a tropical rainforest. (16 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 16/16 (Level 3, AO1 8 marks/AO2 8 marks) = A* grade (100%)

Deforestation rates in the Amazon have reached over 27,000 km2/year in certain years and this reduction in vegetation has had significant impacts on both the water and carbon cycles in the tropical rainforest as the biosphere is a key store for both cycles.

Deforestation is often driven by increased demand for land for farming as 70% of deforested land is used for cattle ranching and this has a significant effect on the water cycle as deforestation of places such as the [INSERT CASE STUDY HERE] reduces interception (which accounts for 25% of evaporation in the Amazon rainforest) and this in turn means that soil pore spaces are filled up quicker and so there is more soil moisture surplus leading to more surface run off and increased risk of flooding. For example, the [INSERT CASE STUDY HERE] flood killed [INSERT CASE STUDY HERE] people. Precipitation is also affected as deforestation and farming means less evapotranspiration and potentially reduced convectional rainfall in areas such as Sao Paolo which is downwind from deforested areas and suffering from water shortages. Agriculture often exacerbates these negative effects on the water cycle as increased soil disturbance and irrigation can lead to increased water losses and soil compaction. Reduces infiltration capacity and contributes to increased surface run-off and risk of flooding. Which creates a temporary water store. This clearly shows how deforestation, which is often driven by farming, can increase the speed of some flows such as run-off but also reduces key processes such as transpiration which in turn reduces atmospheric water a store and reduces precipitation, leading to potentially more drought as seen in both 2005 and 2010.

The process by which a lot of deforestation occurs is known as 'slash and burn' and involves setting fires to burn down rainforests. This process itself increases a key process in the carbon cycle, combustion, and in turn also reduces the biosphere store of carbon and so the atmospheric store of carbon increases. In fact deforestation and land use change is thought to contribute to 15-20% of CO2 emissions. Deforestation also reduces the protection/cover for soil and this is enhanced by farming practices such as ploughing which releases more carbon from the soil and in turn increases the atmospheric store. There is also reduced organic matter input into the soil as there is less leaf ___ from trees and crops are harvested. This __further reduces soil carbon store but also means rainforest decomposition and so less of a flow of CO2 to the atmosphere. Intensive livestock farming contributes 100 million tonnes of Methane to the atmosphere and cattle farming is prevalent in the Amazon and so emissions of methane have increased significantly in the Amazon, representing an increased/new flow into the atmosphere.

I believe that deforestation has the more significant impact on both the carbon and water cycles in the Amazon as this represents a huge change to the biosphere store which links both cycles and as a result has a large and dangerous capacity for positive feedback in the rainforest. For instance reduced precipitation due to evapotranspiration as there are less trees has resulted in a greater frequency of droughts in the Amazon and thus has the potential to cause desertification and so after this biome itself. Thus would have a large impact on the carbon cycle as the Amazon tropical rainforest currently sequesters 17% of all terrestrial carbon. (net 650m tonnes of CO2 per year). Positive feedback has the potential to reverse this flow and make the rainforest a net emitter of CO2 due to increased decomposition and desertification reducing the biosphere and soil stores significantly. Therefore it is this greater risk of positive feedback from deforestation that means it has a greater effect on both cycles.

AO1: This response shows a comprehensive knowledge and understanding of the effects of deforestation and farming on the water and carbon cycles of a tropical rainforest. The candidate has discussed a number of examples where the effects are seen and have given accurate place-specific content.AO2: This response is comprehensive. The candidate analyses and evaluates the extent to which deforestation and farming affect the water and carbon cycles of a tropical rainforest. They have demonstrated an understanding of how rates of flow are disturbed and that these disturbances affect the physical factors that make up the forest environment. They understand that the deforestation and farming are interlinked and they evaluate the significance of their impact on a variety of scales. The judgements made are secure and evidence based.

(June 2018) Question 4 (c) Assess the extent to which deforestation and farming affect the water and carbon cycles of a tropical rainforest. (16 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 1 (a) Study Table 1, the global reservoirs of water. Suggest how the distribution of water amongst the major stores shown in Table 1 influences human use of the water cycle. (4 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 4/4 = A* grade (100%)

Most of the water is in the oceans and this is where most evaporation comes from. The water in rivers is a very small % of the water (0.0001) but this is vital to humans as it is fresh water and easily used for uses such as irrigation and in homes. Rivers can be dammed and water stored in the lake behind the dam. There is more water in groundwater (0.7%) and humans use this as well. In some places this is a very important source of water as in the dry season rivers dry up and cannot be used. Water can be pumped up from the ground and used.

The response focuses on the table and picks up on the use of rivers and groundwater specifically. Figures are quoted accurately from the table, and for both rivers and groundwater, sensible justifications are given for their use by human activities.

(Student Guide) Question 1 (a) Study Table 1, the global reservoirs of water. Suggest how the distribution of water amongst the major stores shown in Table 1 influences human use of the water cycle. (4 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 1 (c) Examine the significance of short-term changes in the carbon cycle. (10 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 8/10 (Level 3) = A* grade (80%)

The carbon cycle is one of the most important cycles on Earth. It is a closed system at the global scale so any changes can affect the global cycle. There are also smaller-scale cycles of carbon which are open systems. For example a single tree is a carbon cycle and carbon goes into the tree and comes out as CO2 every day.

One key way in which the carbon cycle changes in the short term is through plants. Photosynthesis means that they absorb CO2 when they respire, they store more carbon than they release and this helps reduce the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere. This is important as CO2 is increasing in the atmosphere and this is causing global warming. CO2 is a greenhouse gas and is trapping more and more of the Sun's energy (shortwave radiation).

In the oceans phytoplankton are the same as plants on land as they absorb CO2 from the atmosphere and store it. This carbon either passes through the food chains such as fish eating phytoplankton and then being eaten by predator fish, such as tuna, or it sinks to the bottom of the oceans when the plankton dies. Both these ways mean that carbon is taken from the atmosphere and stored. The accumulation of dead plankton on the sea bed can then lead to longer-term storage of carbon.

Other short-term changes can be seen when deforestation takes place. Trees contain large amounts of carbon, for example in the rainforest, 60% of all the carbon. When trees are removed this carbon sometimes continues to be stored, for example in timber products such as buildings and furniture. However, if the trees are burned and replaced by either livestock or crops, then the carbon store is severely reduced. Short-term changes can be significant if they end up releasing more carbon than they store and add to the issue of global warming.

An encouraging opening paragraph as it indicates that the student has immediately focused on short-term change in the carbon cycle. It also suggests that the student has grasped the idea of closed and open systems.In the second paragraph the student offers thorough knowledge and understanding of the role of plants in the carbon cycle through the process of photosynthesis. With a little more details about the time scale this cycling operates at, such as the diurnal rhythm of absorbing CO2 during the day and respiring it at night, the point would be more convincing. The application of this knowledge and understanding to the significance as regards storing carbon is good.The student reinforces their responses with the comments about phytoplankton, displaying effective knowledge and understanding of the significance of short-term changes int he carbon cycle but also linking this with longer-term change.This final paragraph confirms the student's focus on the question with appropriate comments about deforestation linked directly to short-term changes in the carbon cycle.The final sentence offers a sensible conclusion to this extended prose response. Overall this answer demonstrates comprehensive knowledge and understanding of short-term carbon cycling although a little more detail would gibe the discussion greater authority. The student applies their knowledge and understanding thoroughly and links well some of the processes operating in the carbon cycle to the significant issue of global warming.

(Student Guide) Question 1 (c) Examine the significance of short-term changes in the carbon cycle. (10 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 1 (d) To what extent can management strategies moderate human impacts on water and carbon cycles in EITHER the tropical rainforest OR the Arctic tundra?

Total mark for the essay question: 12/16 = A grade (75%)

The water cycle in the Arctic tundra is an interesting one as so much of the water is frozen. Permafrost covers the region and is divided into three types: continuous, discontinuous and sporadic. Which type depends on latitude as the climate is colder the further north one goes. There is a brief summer in the tundra when the temperatures go above 0ºC and this is when there is when there is some melting of the permafrost. Liquid water can then flow in the active layer at the surface and water flows into rivers which have a high discharge.

Although humans have lived in the Arctic tundra for thousands of years they have had little impact on the area as the intuit lived sustainable lives. They hunted for their food and in some parts kept reindeer. Recently human activities have grown in the tundra when oil and gas were discovered at Prudoe Bay in the 1960s. This has meant vast amounts of building such as roads, pipelines and oil rigs as well as houses for the oil workers. This has led to more heat being released into the environment and this has led to the permafrost melting, for example around buildings and pipelines. When the permafrost melts the soil moves and buildings and pipelines slip down slopes. This damages them and they can break and pollute the tundra. It also means that vast amounts of frozen water now flows into rivers and causes floods across the north slope of Alaska.

There are several strategies which are used to manage impacts on the tundra. One is to put lots of insulation around pipelines in the permafrost and under buildings. This prevents heat escaping and melting the permafrost and the water then is kept frozen. This is an effective strategy although there is another one used with pipelines. These are supported on stilts above the ground which means that any warmth escaping from them goes into the atmosphere as the oil is heated to allow it to flow. In some places such as the Trans-Alaska Pipeline, the supports are refrigerated which means that the permafrost is less likely to melt. It is also important not to melt the tundra as an increase in liquid water means that flooding is more likely. Some parts of the tundra have lots of lakes and ponds caused when gravel was mined for construction. Today permission for this type of mining is not as easy to get so that the permafrost is protected. In the oil and gas industry fewer exploration wells are used as they cause disruption to water movements. Usually underground explosions are used to set off seismic waves which can then be used to tell if the rocks contain oil or gas. They can use computer technology to work out where the oil and gas are. It is also possible to drive a drill sideways so that you don't need to set up a new drilling rig in a different place.

The tundra is a very fragile ecosystem that is very easy to destroy. It takes a long time to recover and so management strategies have to be very good to prevent damage to the water cycle. In the past there was little done to stop damage but now people are more aware of their impacts and ,ore is done to stop environmental damage.

An authoritative first paragraph opens this response with the student clearly demonstrating comprehensive knowledge and understanding about some of the factors operating in the Arctic water cycle. This gives the discussion an effective introduction, stating which of the options in the question is being discussed.(Paragraph 2) The appreciation that human impacts have been minimal until relatively recently is helpful a and indicates the depth of the student's knowledge and understanding and a degree of evaluation. The information about the impacts caused by the oil and gas industries is relevant although the discussion becomes less focused in the comments about slope movements when the permafrost melts. Nevertheless, the student has set the scene well for discussing management strategies.The 3rd paragraph is where the student focuses in on the management strategies operating in the Arctic tundra. The student displays comprehensive knowledge and understanding of a number of relevant techniques for avoiding melting the permafrost. The analysis of these techniques is heading in the right direction but the answer tends towards the descriptive rather than giving a convincing evaluation of the strategies.The response ends with appropriate comments about the fragile nature of the Arctic tundra environment. The conclusion also refers to the change in attitudes towards management of the location and assesses the contrast in approach to use of the region.There is much that is encouraging about this discussion. The student has offered some useful factual material about both the nature of the physical environment of the Arctic tundra, the human impacts and some of the strategies employed to manage these impacts. For the comprehensive knowledge and understanding, Level 3 7/8 marks is given. The key command phrase in the question, 'To what extent...' is addressed but not as comprehensively as it might be to reach Level 3 in A02. Perhaps some of the time the student spent on the second paragraph could have been given to further analysis of how effective some of the strategies have been. In A02 therefore, top of Level 2, 5/8 marks.

(Student Guide) Question 1 (d) To what extent can management strategies moderate human impacts on water and carbon cycles in EITHER the tropical rainforest OR the Arctic tundra?
What do places consist of?

Several physical and human features which combine to give the place a distinctive character.

What do places consist of?
What are the demographic characteristics of a place?

Demographic refers to characteristics such as the numbers of inhabitants, what ages they are, numbers of males and females and what is the ethnic composition of the population.

What are the demographic characteristics of a place?
Give examples of how resources influence a place profile.

Availability of a resource such as a mineral can lead to a place becoming a mining settlement. As long as that mineral is economically valuable the place will prosper but once the mine closes a downward spiral can set in. The location of a university can lead to a place developing as a centre of research and activities such as publishing.

Give examples of how resources influence a place profile.
What is meant by the term ‘place profile’?

A place profile is a description of a place made up of a combination of its physical and human characteristics.

What is meant by the term ‘place profile’?
Distinguish between ‘space’ and ‘place’.

Space is the objective meaning of a location such as its map co-ordinates. Place is the subjective meaning of a location such as how you feel about where your home, school or college are. The same space can have different place meanings to different people.

Distinguish between ‘space’ and ‘place’.
What is meant by the term ‘Time-space compression’?

A set of processes leading to a ‘shrinking world’ caused by reductions in the relative distances between places, e.g. reduces travel time, the internet and containerisation (TEU).

What is meant by the term ‘Time-space compression’?
Explain how time-space compression creates global hubs.

A global hub is a place, usually a city, with multiple international connections to other places. Communications, goods, people, ides and knowledge flow in and out of such a place making it a very dynamic place with an upward economic trend.

Explain how time-space compression creates global hubs.
Why do informal representations of place need to be interpreted with care?

Informal representations of place are based on subjective opinions. Different people can give very different meanings to the same place based on the same photograph or painting. Some informal representations of place try to emphasise a certain characteristic and so convey a particular image.

Why do informal representations of place need to be interpreted with care?
Why is the use of relative poverty helpful when investigating patterns of social inequality?

Relative poverty relates a person’s income to local economic conditions. It takes account of the cost of goods and services relative to that in other places. For example, average incomes in one place may seem comparatively high, but if the costs of goods and services are high, then poverty is relative to that situation and can exist at income levels higher than would be the case in places with lower costs of goods and services.

Why is the use of relative poverty helpful when investigating patterns of social inequality?
Why is housing a good indicator of social inequality?

Housing often takes a major share of a household’s income so differences in quality of housing directly reflect wealth inequalities. Inadequate housing leads to ill-health and this leads to poor educational performance and absence from work and so a downwards spiral is created.

Why is housing a good indicator of social inequality?
What is meant by the term ‘key settlements’?

Key settlements are places where services (e.g. school, doctor, shop) are concentrated in rural areas so that thresholds of numbers of users are met to ensure the service survives.

What is meant by the term ‘key settlements’?
Why can economic change in a place often be contested?

Economic change nearly always involves several players, each with their own particular perspective regarding the change. Some may agree in principle, but disagree about the details, such as wanting to build a new road but disagreeing about its actual route. Others may oppose the changes completely.

Why can economic change in a place often be contested?
What is meant by the ’24-hour city’?

Put simply, the 24-hour city never sleeps. Activities such as work, shopping, leisure are happening throughout the day and night. The detail is more complex as she activities tend to dominate during certain periods, e.g. retailing between 9 a.m. and 7 p.m., and offices operate between 8 a.m. and 6 p.m.

What is meant by the ’24-hour city’?
What to remember when solving for IQR?

Sort all data.

What to remember when solving for IQR?
(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Study Fig. 1, a computer-generated design for an urban development. Use one piece of evidence from Fig. 1 to explain how planners and architects have attempted to create a successful urban place. (3 marks)

AO2 - 2 marksAO3 - 1 mark

1 x 1 for specific evidence interpreted from the resource.

2 x 1 for drawing conclusions from the specific resource evidence to explain how planners and architects attempt to create a successful urban place.

  • Environmental quality including trees, shrubs, grass areas and open space; creates attractive environment for residents and employees; helps create an area with good air quality
  • Mixed land use - residential, recreation, employment, transport, walkways, retail, restaurants; encourages mixed community use and sense of community; creates a sense of place which serves people of wide-ranging identity
  • Variety of accommodation - larger properties, and apartments; attracts variety of different types of household; inward facing balconies, pool areas help create sense of community
  • Varied use of open space - in central ground area and on upper walkways; provides access to shops and services; allows opportunity for different types of recreational use
  • Vertical land-use zoning - ground floor shops, restaurants, higher floors residential; maximum use of space; elevates accommodation above noise; creates space for communal activities and walkways / road at ground level
  • Accessibility by walkway and road; provides access to housing, shops, services and recreational areas; allows access within the complex and connections to other urban areas.

Q1(a) was answered well. Many candidates made good use of the resource to identify appropriate evidence and many were able to draw conclusions from this evidence to explain how planners and architects had attempted to create a successful urban place. The most frequently cited piece of evidence was the open space / vegetated area. In this case, candidates often developed their answer in terms of its value for leisure, for residents and employees, and for its various environmental benefits and its attractiveness affecting possible residential and commercial take up. There were also a number of responses, which outlined the advantages of vertical land use zoning, mixed land use or accessibility. Higher marks were achieved where candidates were able to develop their answer by linking evidence to reasons for potential success of the design. Some candidates were able only to provide a piece of evidence from Figure 1 obtaining the AO3 mark but with no further relevant discussion, which was required for the two AO2 marks.

(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Study Fig. 1, a computer-generated design for an urban development. Use one piece of evidence from Fig. 1 to explain how planners and architects have attempted to create a successful urban place. (3 marks)
(June 2018) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows OS 1:25000 map extracts of an area in the rural-urban fringe of Ipswich for 1955 and 2015. Using evidence from Fig. 2, suggest the roles of different players that may have been involved in driving economic change in this area. (8 marks)

Indicative ContentAO2 - 4 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse the roles of different players / stakeholders in driving economic change in this area could potentially include:

  • National government - strategic planning of major transport links, such as planning optimum route, negotiating compulsory purchase of farmland, dealing with local resident opinion in enquiries
  • National road construction companies - which may be part of the operations of a TNC
  • Local government / borough council - responsible for local transport planning, planning new housing estates and minor roads, developing other infrastructure and public transport
  • Village councils - concerned with economic impact of additional population on services and changes in employment opportunities
  • Environment Agency /Lead local flood authorities /Ipswich Borough Council - flood risk monitoring and advice on areas of potential housing, industrial and road development
  • Industrial companies, TNCs / local businesses - seeking accessible edge-of-town sites on areas of relatively low land value
  • Property developers - building new housing near road junctions or village expansion favoured by commuters
  • Farmers - involved in land purchase and the impact of structural economic change in the area
  • EU
  • Heritage associations

AO3 - 4 marks

Evidence from investigation and interpretation of the OS maps, which could potentially include:

  • Construction of the A14 trunk road - major by-pass route with links to the national road network (126440)
  • Clover leaf junction (1345) - links A14 to minor arterial roads for Ipswich, villages such as Sproughton and new industrial estates
  • Industrial estate (134454) - north of sugar beet factory
  • Residential expansion of Sproughton (126447)
  • Evidence of areas of farmland reduced by residential and industrial developments - Red House Farm /River’s Farm
  • Construction developments avoid immediate floodplain of River Gipping (e.g. 138447)

Q1(b) required candidates to suggest the roles of players that may have been involved in driving economic change in the area of the OS map extracts (an area in the rural-urban fringe of Ipswich). Many candidates were able to apply their knowledge and understanding of this topic thoroughly to the novel situation presented by this resource. It was encouraging to read the better responses, which identified very clearly two or three possible players (or stakeholders) and linked the role of each to driving economic change. In this respect there was much good practice in the detailed interpretation of the OS map extracts to identify the changes and the possible players involved in driving those changes. The most frequent references included: the role of national government in development of the main road network, especially the A14, and the school in Sproughton; local tiers of government in developing other road access, housing estates, the industrial estate and other infrastructure; private businesses such as Karting; and local resident associations. Some candidates simply described the changes in land use shown on the OS maps between the two dates and they were not able to identify the players that may have driven the change.

(June 2018) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows OS 1:25000 map extracts of an area in the rural-urban fringe of Ipswich for 1955 and 2015. Using evidence from Fig. 2, suggest the roles of different players that may have been involved in driving economic change in this area. (8 marks)
(June 2018) Question 1 (c) Explain two ways that differing levels of income influence social inequality. (6 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the ways differing levels of income influence social inequality could potentially include:

  • ability to purchase goods and services. People living in absolute poverty cannot afford essentials - food, clothing, shelter.
  • access to housing, ability to purchase or rent housing. Variations in quality of housing, sanitation, overcrowding, lead to inequalities in health.
  • health is closely linked to level of income; housing quality, access to health services, poor diet and unhealthy life styles affect morbidity and mortality rates.
  • access to education is influenced by income; e.g. children in poor families in LIDCs / EDCs expected to contribute to household income have limited prospect of education, whereas some children may benefit if parents can purchase a house within the catchment of a particular school / private education / university fees
  • access to services affects quality of life and standard of living; people with higher incomes are advantaged since they can afford transport and / or access to services.

Allow reference to inequalities at all scales

Responses to Q1(c) often related social inequality to differing levels of income at household or neighbourhood scale. There was good discussion of the impact of income on access to housing, healthcare and education, as well as the ability to purchase essential items such as food and how these related to social inequality. Although not essential, knowledge and understanding of these elements of social inequality were often suitably reinforced by exemplar material. Examples included, contrasting local intra-urban neighbourhoods such as within London Boroughs or the contrasts globally between urban slums such as Jembatan Besi, Jakarta and the high earning residents of Northwood, Irvine. This approach enabled candidates to produce well-developed ideas about the links between levels of income and social inequality. Responses awarded in the lowest level tended to include only basic knowledge and understanding of ways in which income influences social inequality with simple, brief ideas.

(June 2018) Question 1 (c) Explain two ways that differing levels of income influence social inequality. (6 marks)
(June 2018) Question 1 (d) How far do you agree that place identity at a local scale is shaped by natural characteristics? (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of place identity at a local scale and how this is shaped by natural characteristics and other factors could potentially include:

  • natural characteristics
    • relief
    • altitude
    • aspect
    • drainage
    • geology
    • climate
    • soil and natural vegetation
  • other factors
    • demographic characteristics
    • socio-economic characteristics
    • cultural features
    • political influences
    • characteristics of the built environment
    • legacy of past characteristics

AO2 - 8 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the significance of natural characteristics relative to other factors in shaping place identity at the local scale could potentially include:

  • evaluation of the importance of natural characteristics relative to other characteristics in shaping place identity
  • the impact of change on place identity such as the effects of globalisation - increasing connectivity, shifting flows of people, investment and ideas
  • the idea that all factors / characteristics interact and that place identity at local scale is not just the result of one set of factors but many in combination
  • the idea that natural characteristics may have had more impact on place identity in the past than the present

Q1(d)* produced wide ranging and interesting outcomes. Most candidates understood the need for a discursive response and they were able to produce an essay, which assessed the relative importance of other factors as well as natural characteristics on place identity.The idea of place identity was well understood and the best responses demonstrated very thorough knowledge and understanding of a range of factors that shape place identity at a local scale. The better responses included accurate place-specific detail in support of the points made. For example, there was often specific factual information of not only the physical geography, but also the built environments and the demographic, socio-economic and cultural features of the chosen places, including statistical evidence.There was much valid discussion of the contrasting place identities of the rural settlement of Lympstone in Devon and the urban area of Toxteth in Liverpool. It was also refreshing to see many other examples from areas perhaps visited on fieldtrips or in a candidate’s local area. As might be expected, many good responses also included the evaluative comments, which attended to the question ‘How far do you agree...’. There was much reference to the way in which place identity may depend on perception, that it might change over time, that it might be shaped by the physical environment and by other past characteristics and that many of the factors interact to influence place identity. Quality of extended response tended to be in Level 3.Lower level responses in Q1(d)* were characterised by briefer simplistic comments and more limited understanding. Some candidates fell short of a discursive response producing essays, which simply described the factors or the characteristics of a place with no other comment. In these instances, candidates had not used their knowledge and understanding to gain the AO2 marks available for analysis and evaluation when addressing the question except in basic terms. Analysis was frequently simple and evaluation was rarely supported by evidence.For some candidates a clear understanding of what is meant by natural characteristics was a difficulty.

(June 2018) Question 1 (d) How far do you agree that place identity at a local scale is shaped by natural characteristics? (16 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 Series Overview for OCR A-level Geography (Human interactions)

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(June 2019) Paper 2 Series Overview for OCR A-level Geography (Human interactions)
(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Study Fig.1, a photograph to represent Shadwell, an inner city area in east London. Use one piece of evidence from Fig.1 to explain why local residents might contest efforts to rebrand their neighbourhood. (3 marks)

AO2 - 2 marksAO3 - 1 mark

1 x 1 for specific evidence interpreted from the resource.

2 x 1 for drawing conclusions from the specific resource evidence to explain why local residents might contest efforts to rebrand their neighbourhood.

  • High density, low cost housing or luxury apartments for sale; rebranding might bring socio-economic change; leading to rising property prices and higher rents which local residents could not afford
  • Money transfer advertisements suggests migrant population sending money ‘home’; rebranding might limit employment opportunities for resident migrant population
  • Small local shops and businesses; rebranding might have an impact on types of shops and services; residents can feel alienated by change and excluded from new shops, wine bars, restaurants; loss of community attachment to place
  • Mixed land use / amenities - services, employment, transport, shops; rebranding might construct a different place meaning e.g. a large-scale development; local residents’ priorities might be different e.g. improving the local amenities.

Most candidates correctly identified an appropriate piece of evidence from the photograph such as the tower block of flats or local shops. They were able to develop their answer in the correct context of contesting efforts to rebrand the area; only a few candidates misread the question by discussing why local residents might think the area should be rebranded. The majority of responses focused on the possibility that rebranding might cause domestic or business rents to increase, making it difficult for families on lower incomes to remain in the area. Some candidates correctly identified as evidence the advertisements for money transfer services, suggesting that any migrant population living in the area might be adversely affected if these were lost as part of the rebranding process.

(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Study Fig.1, a photograph to represent Shadwell, an inner city area in east London. Use one piece of evidence from Fig.1 to explain why local residents might contest efforts to rebrand their neighbourhood. (3 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows a formal statistical representation of Shadwell from the 2011 Census, and Fig. 1. Using evidence from Fig. 1 and Fig. 2, contrast the formal and informal representations of place. (8 marks)

Indicative ContentAO2 - 4 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse the contrasts in formal and informal representations of place could potentially include:

  • Formal census gives precise, accurate, reliable quantitative data whereas informal photograph gives a general qualitative view of the area
  • Census data is for an entire political unit whereas, the photograph is more limited showing just part of the area
  • Chosen area photographed is subjective, influenced by perceptions of photographer whereas census data is objective, carefully planned providing a rational place profile
  • Census provides data which cannot be observed whereas the photograph gives visual impression of the built environment
  • Census provides specific socio-economic data whereas photograph shows broad characteristics of housing types, shops and services
  • Census data is formally collected by law every 10 years whereas photograph informally produced at any time
  • Photograph shows transport services whereas, this is not recorded in this census data

AO3 - 4 marks

Evidence from investigation and interpretation of the contrasts between the Census and the photograph could potentially include:

  • Census
    • type of political unit - Lower Layer Super Output Area
    • Specific date - 2011
    • Demographic data - age structure / population density
    • Housing data - overcrowding / tenure
    • Vehicle ownership
  • Photograph
    • Residential - high-rise flats / older dwellings above shops
    • Small shops - local services
    • Transport - rail (DLR)
    • Various safety measures for pedestrians
    • Overall view / impression of the built environment
    • Advertisements - luxury flats, money transfers

There were many candidates who correctly answered this question i.e. they demonstrated understanding of the contrasts between the two types of representations of place, thereby achieving the AO2 marks. They also obtained the AO3 marks by illustrating these contrasts using appropriate evidence from Figures 1 and 2. There were frequent references to the quantitative or qualitative and objective or subjective nature of the data. The points made were supported by selected contrasting evidence from the photograph, typically concerning specific features of the built environment, and the census data with much reference to specific demographic or socio-economic statistics. This is illustrated by Exemplar 1 which includes two extracts from the same response.

(June 2019) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows a formal statistical representation of Shadwell from the 2011 Census, and Fig. 1. Using evidence from Fig. 1 and Fig. 2, contrast the formal and informal representations of place. (8 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (c) Explain how people’s perception of place can vary according to their age. (6 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of ways in which people’s age influences perception of place could potentially include:

  • Perceptions about places where people might live as they move through the life cycle - to meet their differing needs. For example, younger people might perceive the inner city as a first place to live independently requiring less space, small or no garden to maintain, access to services and work. Older retired people might prefer the perceived peace and quiet of outer leafy suburbs.
  • Perceptions of a place may change between positive and negative as people age. Young might perceive place amenity values of a recreational place positively; elderly might have a negative perception, for example the value of an urban park or the natural environment in a rural area such as a national park.
  • Perceptions of place may depend on different priorities as people age, such as risk in suburban / urban areas. Children may be concerned about traffic safety, places to play or places to avoid because of fear, whereas older people see suburbs as residential places and neighbourhood communities; the pubs and clubs of town centres may be less attractive to the elderly than young adults.
  • Perceptions of a holiday venue may change over time as people age. For example the positive memory or recall of coastal geographic features such as a sandy beach visited when very young may be viewed differently as a teenager or in retirement.

This question was answered relatively well. The main points identified included the differences in perception of places where people might live as they move through the life cycle, perceptions of place amenity / requirements, perceptions of risk / fear, and the influence of past experience / memory on perception of place. The best answers demonstrated thorough knowledge and understanding of how these age-related factors can influence perception of place. Many responses included well-developed explanations with discussion of two of the main points. These were often exemplified by appropriate examples of place such as various intra-urban areas, especially the differing perceptions of a suburban park, for example by the very young, by teenagers, by young parents or by the elderly. Some candidates included unnecessary introductions concerning all the other personal identities that might influence perception of place apart from age; some candidates included conclusions which in effect produced unnecessary repetition of points made earlier.

(June 2019) Question 1 (c) Explain how people’s perception of place can vary according to their age. (6 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (d) The impact of structural economic change on people and place is mainly socio-economic.’ Evaluate this statement in the context of one country or region. (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of socio-economic and other impacts of structural economic change on people and place could potentially include:

  • Socio-economic impacts
    • Social inequality
    • Employment structure and opportunities
    • Housing type and availability
    • Service provision, including access to health, education, community services
    • Incomes, unemployment and housing benefit
    • Infrastructure
  • Demographic impacts
    • Total population
    • Age structure
    • Ethnic structure
    • Migration
  • cultural impacts
    • iversity in types of religions and places of worship
    • traditions/festivals
  • Environmental impacts
    • Health
    • Dereliction
    • Built environment
    • Pollution of air, land and waterways
    • Planning responses

AO2 - 8 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate socio-economic and other types of impact of structural economic change could potentially include:

  • Significance of the various socio-economic impacts as a result of structural economic change in a country or region
  • Significance of other types of impact as a result of structural economic change in a country or region, such as demographic, cultural and environmental impacts
  • The idea that all impacts are interrelated and that structural economic change does not have one type of impact but many in combination
  • The idea that the impacts of structural economic change on a country or region can be positive and / or negative
  • The idea that a particular country or region may have experienced different impacts at different periods of its history such as during industrialisation, deindustrialisation and regeneration
  • Impacts of structural economic change may vary spatially within the country or region

Place-specific detail should be related to one case study of a country, or a region, such as the Birmingham Metropolitan Region.

It was evident in responses to this question that many candidates were well-prepared for the topic. The better answers demonstrated thorough understanding of structural economic change and candidates were able to link the changes to specific socio-economic and other types of impacts on people and place. Essays were well-structured as described in Level 3 of the Quality of Extended Response. There were clear and strong attempts to write in a discursive way in order to evaluate the statement in the question. There was thorough application of knowledge and understanding set in the context of appropriate place-specific detail. The most frequently cited case studies included regions within countries such as: UK, USA, Spain, UAE, India and Sri Lanka.A typical introductory paragraph which is short, to the point and demonstrates some understanding of the requirements of the question is shown below in Exemplar 3.

(June 2019) Question 1 (d) The impact of structural economic change on people and place is mainly socio-economic.’ Evaluate this statement in the context of one country or region. (16 marks)
(June 2020) Question 1 (a) Study Fig.1, which shows percentage change of population in rural areas of England between 2001 and 2015. Use one piece of evidence from Fig.1 to show how shifting flows of people have shaped the demographic profile of rural areas in England. (3 marks)

AO2 - 2 marksAO3 - 1 mark

1 x 1 for specific evidence interpreted from the resource.

2 x 1 for drawing conclusions from the specific resource evidence to explain how shifting flows of people have shaped the demographic profile of rural areas in England.

  • 65-69 age category increased by 56% urban-rural retirement migration benefits of quieter rural environment / less traffic/ lower cost housing / access to leisure activities
  • 45-49 age category increased by 21% urban-rural migration working at home benefits of living in rural environment with internet access; no need to commute to work / weekly commute
  • 20-24 age category increased by 19% access to lower cost housing / safer rural environment for young families prepared to commute to work in urban area
  • 30-34 age category decreased by 17% / 35-39 by 24% rural-urban migration, greater employment opportunities dissatisfied by service provision / social opportunities in rural areas

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(June 2020) Question 1 (a) Study Fig.1, which shows percentage change of population in rural areas of England between 2001 and 2015. Use one piece of evidence from Fig.1 to show how shifting flows of people have shaped the demographic profile of rural areas in England. (3 marks)
(June 2020) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows cyclical economic change in the UK between 1978 and 2017. Using evidence from Fig. 2, suggest how cyclical economic change can have varied social impacts. (8 marks)

Indicative ContentAO2 - 4 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse the social impacts of cyclical economic change could potentially include:

  • Household income / disposable income varies in periods of boom and recession; this has varied social impacts such as access to / affordability of housing, health and education services, leisure activities, luxuries
  • Social impacts of booms and recessions have disproportionate effects on disadvantaged groups; for example, in recession low income households less able to withstand periods of unemployment / reduced income than wealthier households
  • Social impacts of periods of economic growth, (new investment, creation of job opportunities, reduced unemployment, increased household income) include raising standards of living, lifting people out of poverty, increased household spending on housing, health, education, leisure, luxury items.
  • Social impacts of periods of recession, (higher unemployment, reduced household / disposable income) include cuts in household spending on recreation, health, education, housing / rent; falling standard of living
  • Strong link between unemployment and health, especially mental health, during periods of recession and afterwards
  • Impact on government spending on social services such as differing decisions to spend on health, education, housing in periods of recession and boom
  • The spatial dimension of recession such as the impact of structural unemployment leading to service decline in particular areas, exacerbating social inequality geographically

AO3 - 4 marks

Evidence from investigation and interpretation of the graph could potentially include:

Decline

  • Periods of decline in economic growth such as 2007-09 (+3.5% falling to -5.2%)
  • Periods of rising unemployment such as 2007-11 (5.3%-8.2%)

Growth

  • Periods of economic growth such as 2009-10 (- 5.2% rising to +1.8%)
  • Periods of falling unemployment such as 2013- 17 (7.8%-4.4%)

Also, credit reference to varied duration of booms / recessions and rates of change in GDP growth / unemployment.

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(June 2020) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows cyclical economic change in the UK between 1978 and 2017. Using evidence from Fig. 2, suggest how cyclical economic change can have varied social impacts. (8 marks)
(June 2020) Question 1 (c) Suggest two ways that time-space compression can influence our sense of place. (6 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of ways that time-space compression can influence our sense of place could potentially include:

  • Improved transport and communications, overcoming spatial / distance barriers, has led to global trade connections, with goods in shops in ACs sourced from across the world providing a sense of global connection on the high street; or has inf luenced our emotional attachment to / perceptions of place
  • Easier flows / transfers of money / investments, through advances in e-communications, leading to creation of financial hubs in ACs such as changed sense of place in Canary Wharf from dockland to service centre; or development of outsourcing, such as changed sense of place in the industrial structure of Bangalore
  • Flows of people and ideas across the world occur more easily, for example increased labour mobility, which has influenced sense of place by influencingtheethnicdiversityinsomeplaces, changing the cultural and built environment
  • Spread of global brands now trading on high streets, threatens uniqueness of high streets, smaller independent traders may go out of business, can affect sense of place negatively with feelings of dislocation

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(June 2020) Question 1 (c) Suggest two ways that time-space compression can influence our sense of place. (6 marks)
(June 2020) Question 1 (d) Successful rebranding of a place is rarely the product of a single strategy.’ To what extent do you agree? (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of rebranding strategies could potentially include:

  • Market-led strategies such as those of private investors taking the lead, including property developers and business owners
  • Top-down strategies involving large scale organisations, often public sector such as local authority planning departments
  • Flagship development such as large-scale one- off property developments using distinctive architecture – a catalyst for further development
  • Legacy, for example, where investment and regeneration follows major sporting event
  • Events and themes, such as major festivals or designation as capital of culture, acting as catalyst for cultural development and further urban regeneration

AO2 - 8 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which successful rebranding is a product of more than one strategy could potentially include:

  • Evaluation of a single strategy which can be successful in rebranding a place
  • Evaluation of a range of strategies which can be involved / required for successful rebranding of a place
  • The range of strategies may depend on the scale and nature of the place designated for rebranding
  • The involvement of a range of dif ferent players / stakeholders, each with different inputs, may lead to a range of strategies which are co- ordinated
  • Rebranding may take place over a period of time involving different strategiesat different stages
  • Only a single element may be needed for a successful rebranding process (architecture, heritage, retail, art, sport, food) or more than one of these elements may be required to contribute to a successful rebranding strategy

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(June 2020) Question 1 (d) Successful rebranding of a place is rarely the product of a single strategy.’ To what extent do you agree? (16 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Study Fig. 1 which shows a photograph of part of a city in the UK in 2014. Explain how one piece of evidence from Fig. 1, shows this place has been rebranded to construct a new place image. (3 marks)

AO2 - 2 marksAO3 - 1 mark

1x1 for specific evidence interpreted from the resource.

2x1 for drawing conclusions from the specific resource evidence that this place has been rebranded to construct a new place image.

  • Boat trips are available along the canal. This canal was most likely used for industrial purposes in the past, now it has rebranded to attract tourists to the area, possibly drawing on its heritage.
  • Restaurants/café culture along the canal side. Café culture is a relatively new addition to the UK but part of a rebranding process to create a positive atmosphere where people can meet and enjoy leisure time. The range of restaurants and cafes creates ‘something for everyone,’ an inclusive space where people can relax together.
  • The use of street furniture in the form of hanging baskets and lighting. This shows that planners have tried to make the area attractive and encourage people to use the space. Lighting up the area makes people feel safer at night time and is part of the rebranding process.
  • Split level/multifunctional in layout. Space has been maximised with the canal and walkways below and the road with buildings in the background of the image above. Making spaces multi-functional is part of the rebranding process and assists in creating the 24 hour city.
  • Greenery in the form of trees and flowers have been added to the area. This is often a strategic move by planners to make the place feel more attractive, it was a technique used historically in industrial times and greenery is said to improve mood and health of people who use the area.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Study Fig. 1 which shows a photograph of part of a city in the UK in 2014. Explain how one piece of evidence from Fig. 1, shows this place has been rebranded to construct a new place image. (3 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows information collected from a coastal town to form part of a place profile. Using evidence from Fig. 2, explain why this coastal town has contrasting representations. (8 marks)

Indicative ContentAO2 - 4 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse why the coastal town has contrasting representations could potentially include:

  • Formal representations of the place e.g. The census data in Fig. 2a show the town in a negative light when compared to the rest of the country. This raw data could potentially lead to a downward spiral deterring people from the area
  • Informal representations are often used for marketing purposes to attract people to the area, for example the council website. This can have a positive effect on the economy
  • Informal and personal representations are based on an individual’s understanding of a place and how this may vary according to factors such as age and gender
  • Representations in the form of photographs have been taken by a person who chose to take the photographs of particular areas for reasons of personal bias
  • Photographic information also shows the town in different lights. These photos may have been taken for a particular reason by a particular person so may demonstrate bias.
  • Photograph shows transport services whereas, this is not recorded in this census data

AO3 - 4 marks

Evidence from investigation and interpretation of the contrasts between the Census and the photograph could potentially include:

  • Employment rates are lower at 67.8% when compared to the national average of 71.7. All the formal statistics point to a negative place profile with the exception of 1-4 GCSE category. This raw data could potentially lead to a downward spiral deterring people from the area
  • Phrases like ‘relax’ and ‘soft clean sandy beaches’ have been used to make the place sound an attractive place to visit
  • The informal interview data states that ‘young yobs’ gather by nightfall. This implies that this is perhaps not the view of a ‘younger’ person
  • The photo of graffiti artwork shows some potentially positive attributes of the area but also some more negative with the sad face of the girl with a teddy bear. This artwork may have been created by a person who wanted to send certain messages about the area
  • The image of the volleyball on the beach again shows a different representation of the town. This fits with the council description of ‘soft sandy beaches’, the sun is also shining in this image and people look like they are enjoying themselves and friendships exist. Again this image was chosen for a purpose probably linked to tourism.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (b) Study Fig. 2, which shows information collected from a coastal town to form part of a place profile. Using evidence from Fig. 2, explain why this coastal town has contrasting representations. (8 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (c) Explain how globalisation can influence people’s sense of place. (6 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of globalisation and how this can influence sense of place could potentially include:

  • How rapid globalisation has led to time-space compression, where transport and communications have helped shrink time and space, therefore influencing place meaning
  • Globalisation and global brands can impact places, threatening what makes them unique and important in their individual right
  • Anti-globalisation activists would argue that homogenised landscapes have been created where global corporations like Starbucks can be found on every street corner. These can create perceptions of familiarity where people feel comforted, where they know what they are getting and like they have been somewhere before. Examples might include New York where numerous films and songs about this place have been available globally, creating a sense of place about somewhere you may have never been
  • It can also lead to some people feeling that the local place has been done a disservice as local more unique businesses might be put out of operation, creating feelings of dis-location
  • Some people might argue that globalisation has created a new exciting sense of place through a new kind of diversity, making places appear more exciting with influences from all around the world in the form of food, fashion and music.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (c) Explain how globalisation can influence people’s sense of place. (6 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (d) ‘Placemaking is used by governments only to attract inward investment.’ How far do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)

Indicative Content

Answer will depend on choice of place(s). Government may be local, regional or national.The concept of placemaking can be described in more than one way. One description from The Project for Public Spaces organisation defines it as ‘placemaking inspires people to collectively reimagine and reinvent public spaces as the heart of every community. Strengthening the connection between people and the places they share, Placemaking refers to a collaborative process by which we can shape our public realm in order to maximize shared value.’

AO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of placemaking and how governments use it could potentially include:

  • How governments use placemaking to attract inward investment for example:
    • Reinventing a place e.g. Dubai has reinvented itself from a small fishing village to a hub city with many global brands locating there. Dubai is now a regional hub in several areas
    • Planning e.g. three decades ago Jebel Ali became the Middle East’s first big “free zone” (a place where foreign firms can operate, unusually, without a local partner and with less red tape and lower taxes than in the rest of the emirate). Now it is the world’s largest, and Dubai has 22 such zones in total, most based around particular industries. The number of companies in it grew by 14% in 2013 and 18% in 2014, to reach 1,225. More growth is expected, with $1 billion worth of new development planned
    • Land-use zoning
    • Creating infrastructure e.g. in Cambridge the creation of a specific ‘Science Park’ as a zone that has attracted many high tech companies, including Astra Zenica which was originally founded in Sweden
    • Specific policies e.g. Birmingham now offers direct flights to India and China and this has supported foreign direct investment growth which increased by more than 50% against a national increase of just 11% in 2013. This has created an additional 4,000 local jobs and is worth an estimated £174 million to the local economy per year.

AO2 - 8 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate whether placemaking is only used by governments to attract inward investment could potentially include:

  • Why governments use placemaking for reasons other than attracting inward investment e.g. to improve the environmental quality of the area for local residents, to reduce crime rates, to increase social cohesion
  • The concept of placemaking, for example that placemaking itself has people at the heart of it and so placemaking purely for economic gain is not possible as placemaking is about how the environment and society would benefit too.
  • Strategic placemaking for example that it exists to target certain things, achieving a particular goal in addition to creating quality places. It aims to create places that are uniquely attractive to talented workers so that they want to be there and live there, by so doing, they create the circumstances for substantial job creation and income growth by attracting businesses that are looking for concentrations of talented workers.
  • The level of agreement with the statement that governments only use placemaking to attract inward investment
  • Whether inward investment is the most important reason why places rebrand, if not why not and what is more important? e.g. environmental, social and / or political reasons
  • The role and range of players in the placemaking process for example community groups, governments, TNCs.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (d) ‘Placemaking is used by governments only to attract inward investment.’ How far do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)
Explain the difference between ‘terms of trade’ and ‘balance of payments’.

Terms of trade’ means the value of a country’s exports relative to that of its imports. The ‘balance of payments’ is the difference between a country’s inflows and outflows of money, including all transactions with the rest of the world for goods and services, flows of FDI and migrant remittances, over a period of time.

Explain the difference between ‘terms of trade’ and ‘balance of payments’.
What is meant by FDI?

FDI is foreign direct investment which is the inward investment by a foreign company (usually a large TNC) in a country.

What is meant by FDI?
What is meant by ‘spatial pattern’?

The term ‘spatial pattern’ refers to a geographical distribution over an area at any scale from global to local. For international trade this could refer to data which has been mapped, for example, on a choropleth such as percentage share in value of global exports by country. Or it could refer to the distribution of container ports in a country.

What is meant by ‘spatial pattern’?
What is meant by HDI?

HDI is the Human Development Index which is a composite index of socio-economic development. Its components include economic and social indices. The more developed countries have higher HDI values.

What is meant by HDI?
What is meant by the ‘economic multiplier effect’?

The economic multiplier effect’ is the concept that an initial investment in an economic activity in an area has beneficial knock-on effects elsewhere in the area’s economy.

What is meant by the ‘economic multiplier effect’?
What do you understand by the development gap?

The development gap is the difference in prosperity and wellbeing between rich and poor countries. This could be measured, for example, by GDP per capita and HDI.

What do you understand by the development gap?
What are global supply chains?

Global supply chains are flows of materials, products, information, services and finance in a network of suppliers, manufacturers, distributors and customers around the world. Where value is added to a product by the processes at each stage of a supply chain in different parts of the world it is known as a global value chain.

What are global supply chains?
Give three examples of physical factors that can influence spatial patterns of merchandise trade.

Physical factors influencing spatial patterns of merchandise trade include: the distribution of natural resources such as oil or minerals; climate, soils and water supply which influence supply of specific types of agriculture product; and the natural configuration of a coastline and water depth which may influence location of port facilities.

Give three examples of physical factors that can influence spatial patterns of merchandise trade.
In terms of international trade, what do you understand by the economic interdependence of countries?

An example of economic interdependence is the mutual dependence of two or more countries in a reciprocal relationship through trade, where a country, such as an AC, exports manufactured goods to another, such as an LIDC, and imports raw materials in return.

In terms of international trade, what do you understand by the economic interdependence of countries?
Identify three socio-economic opportunities that international trade might create for an LIDC.

Foreign exchange generated by international trade can be used in an LIDC to invest in health and education services. FDI can bring benefits where the Corporate Social Responsibilities of MNCs are applied. Bilateral relationships developed with ACs can help to strengthen human rights.

Identify three socio-economic opportunities that international trade might create for an LIDC.
What is comparative advantage?

A comparative advantage is a key principle in international trade and forms the basis of why free trade is beneficial to countries. The theory of comparative advantage shows that even if a country enjoys an absolute advantage in the production of goods, trade can still be beneficial to both trading partners.

What is comparative advantage?
How can trade promote stability?
  • International trade can contribute to stability and peace as countries trade with one another by the same agreed rules.
  • Trade encourages states to co-operate on multilateral agreements.
  • Bilateral agreements can extend beyond trade to help with political issues i.e. improving the democratic process which provides a more stable environment for FDI.
How can trade promote stability?
How can trade promote economic growth?
  • International trade can stimulate production and contribute to GDP and further investment including FDI.
  • Jobs are created which raises incomes and reduces poverty.
  • This Economic multiplier effect can be enhanced by further international trade.
How can trade promote economic growth?
How can trade promote development?
  • Removal tariffs to LIDC trade can generate foreign exchange which can be invested to reduce inequalities within countries (poverty and access to healthcare, education and good infrastructure).
  • Corporate responsibility of MNC's and membership of trade and political unions can be a socio-economic benefit to countries.
How can trade promote development?
To what extent do you think the aforementioned benefits occur in reality?

To what extent do you think the aforementioned benefits occur in reality?
What is protectionism?

The theory or practice of shielding a country's domestic industries from foreign competition by taxing imports.

What is protectionism?
What is protectionism and example of?

An example of where free trade will not benefit everyone.

What is protectionism and example of?
What are the banana wars?
  • The "banana wars" is the culmination of a six-year trade quarrel between the US and the EU. The US complained that an EU scheme giving banana producers from former colonies in the Caribbean special access to European markets broke free trade rules.
  • Only 7% of Europe's bananas come from the Caribbean, US multinationals which control the Latin American banana crop hold three-quarters of the EU market and the US itself does not export bananas to Europe.
  • Despite this, the US filed a complaint against the EU with the World Trade Organisation (WTO) and, in 1997, won. The EU was instructed to alter its rules.
What are the banana wars?
What is the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?

The WTO is the only international body which deals with the rules of trade between countries, promoting free trade. Based in Geneva, it superseded the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs, GATT, in 1994. It has the power to legislate on disputes and co-ordinate new rounds of negotiations aimed at dismantling barriers to trade throughout the world.

What is the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
Summarise the banana wars and explore how it links to the concept of free trade, tariffs and protectionism.

Summarise the banana wars and explore how it links to the concept of free trade, tariffs and protectionism.
How can trade result in inequalities?

How can trade result in inequalities?
How can trade result in conflicts?
  • Trade dispute can arise over tariffs, prices of commodities and changes in trade agreements.
  • Border and customs authorities can be subject to corruption and breaches of security.
  • Port development, mining and deforestation linked to trade create environmental conflicts.
How can trade result in conflicts?
How can trade result in injustices?

How can trade result in injustices?
(Student Guide) Question 1 (a) (iii) Evaluate one technique which could be used to represent spatial patterns of merchandise exports by value shown in Table 2. (4 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 4/4 = A* grade (100%)

Proportional symbols such as circles where the area of the symbol is proportional to the value it represents could be used to show the spatial pattern of merchandise exports. If they were placed on a world map within or near to, the countries shown in Table 2 this would give a very good visual impression of the variations and a clear representation of the geographical distribution. This would be an effective way of representing a wide range of absolute values such as China 2.3 trillion US$ and C.A.R. 90 million US$ on the same map. This is possible because a range of data could be applied to each symbol. There would be little problem of overlap if the circles were correctly placed. But unless specific numbers were added to the map next to each circle, accuracy would be limited to the broad range of values used in the key.

(Student Guide) Question 1 (a) (iii) Evaluate one technique which could be used to represent spatial patterns of merchandise exports by value shown in Table 2. (4 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 1 (b) With reference to a case study of an emerging and developing country (EDC) explain how international trade contributes to economic development. (8 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 8/8 = A* grade (100%)

There is a close relationship between trade and development. The benefits of international trade include economic growth and socio-economic development. In the 21st century this has been particularly significant in EDCs such as India.

The Indian government has been actively involved in improving its trade partnerships in order to promote economic development. This has been driven by policies such as removal of high tariffs on imported goods which were in place under its earlier import substitution policy, encouraging both inward and outward FDI, strengthening trade agreements with countries such as the UK with which there is now increasing economic interdependence, and investing in infrastructure and technology.

In 2014, JCB, the British MNC which manufactures construction and agricultural machinery, opened a large factory in Jaipur. This investment can be directly linked to economic development at local scale since it has created jobs, raised incomes and increase spending in the local economy.

At regional scale, agglomeration of industry in the Chennai area is an important economic development which has stimulated the economic multiplier throughout the state of Tamil Nadu and makes a significant contribution to GDP. Chennai has a vehicle-based economy including MNCs such as GM and Ford as well as major Indian companies including Ashok Leyland (commercial vehicles) and Tractors and Farm Equipment Ltd. These have attracted ancillary industries including manufacture of tyres, instruments and electrical equipment. The port of Chennai is a major factor in enabling international trade of vehicles and components.

An important economic development in India is the export of IT services. Global trade in IT services has created billions of dollars in exports annually. Many IT companies have located in cities such as Bangalore creating employment opportunities in a very wide range of skilled and unskilled jobs, and further economic growth.

As a result of international trade in merchandise and services India has experienced significant economic development in the last 15 years. Since 2000 its share of global merchandise exports has risen from 0.7% to 1.7% and during the same period HDI has risen from 0.483 to 0.586.

(Student Guide) Question 1 (b) With reference to a case study of an emerging and developing country (EDC) explain how international trade contributes to economic development. (8 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 2 Increasing connectivity in global supply chains depends on modern technology, Discuss. (16 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 13/16 (AO1 7 marks/AO2 6 marks) = A/A* grade (81.3%)

Global supply chains include flows of raw materials, products, services and money in a network of producers, distributors and customers involved in international trade. Supply chains operate between countries of all types of wealth, power and development. They occur within companies such as the large MNCs and between companies. They are important in the global trade system and as the world has become increasingly globalised, supply chains have become more complex and interconnected. A feature of connectivity in supply chains is the role of technology. Technology, though, is not the only influence on supply chains. They are also affected by political, environmental, social and economic factors.

Technology in transport is important. Recent growth and development of berthing and handling facilities at ports has revolutionised maritime transprot and connectivity in supply chains. The ability to attract large ocean-going vessels has increased not only in ACs but increasingly in EDCs. Examples include ports around the Pacific rim such as Los Angeles, Shangai and Hong Kong, the ports of southeast Asia including Singapore and South Korean ports, those on the North Sea such as Europoort Rotterdam, Felixstowe and Tilbury. These have become an integral factor in supply chains that have developed within the new trade agreements such as the Trans-Pacific Partnership, the Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership, and the EU-South Korea Free Trade Agreement.

The technology to build large ships capable of carrying over 19,000 container units (TEU) has changed the way in which merchandise is transported within supply chains. ICT at modern ports has involved computerisation of the logistics of moving containers between ports of origin and final destination. It has helped to increase the speed of passage of goods along supply chains and enables their tracking worldwide through use of visibility software.

Technology in communications has enabled easier and faster ordering of goods online and making financial transactions. This has helped to bring more producers and customers into global supply chains in the last decade. It has helped speed up transhipments and has minimised the risk of criminal interception. Use of ICT by border and customs. agencies has helped administration in supply chains and the governance of corruption.

Successful management of global supply chains making use of technology is illustrated by Walmart, the world's biggest retailer and MNC. This American company stocks products in over 70 countries and operates 11,000 stores throughout the world. The geographical diversity of its organisation has necessitated the construction of communication networks to secure easy links and develop strong relationships between suppliers, stockists and customers. This is based on use of technology in the supply chains, including computerisation to achieve the most efficient global transport routes and a tagging system to identify and trace merchandise.

Use of technology has been critical in oil supply chains of companies such as Royal Dutch Shell or Saudi Aramco. Technology has enabled development of machinery such as drill bits and platforms for extraction and pipelines for transport of oil in hostile environments such as the Alaskan tundra, Middle East deserts or offshore. This includes not only exploration, drilling and transport techniques but also refinery and even planning of temporary accomodation for employees in these source regions. Transhipment and sale of the products have been possible in a growing number of localities because of the role of ICT in efficiency in the supply chains to diverse locations worldwide.

But technologies are not the only set of factors. Increased supply chain connectivity is achieved by political factors including negotiation of trade agreements between ACs and LIDCs. This integrates companies in LIDCs into supply chains such as the trade links which have been developed between the UK and Ghana. Also opportunities for supply chain development are achieved where countries have joined trading blocs such as the accession of Romania and Bulgaria into the EU, or where political stability has been achieved following periods of conflict and human rights abuses. These factors help to build the resillience in supply chains to withstand possible economic, political or environmental shocks.

The opportunity to strengthen trade links and to enter supply chains occurs in countries such as EDCs where industrial output has become more diversified or where there is outsourcing and services. In countries such as India, improving access to education and the raising of skill levels and qualifications of the workforce has enabled productivity to increase. This also assists in gaining access to world markets. Another contributory factor in the connectivity of supply chains may be the effect of government policy to attract investment in infrastructure.

Technology is significant in achieving connectivity at eacg stage of a supply chain. But other socio-economic factors which affect the ability of LIDCs to enter supply chains, and political factors. such as negotiation of trade agreements are important too.

This essay is comprehensive in knowledge and understanding of supply chains and the ways in which modern technology can increase their connectivity. It also identifies factors other than technology which affect supply chain connectivity. This demonstrates convincing analysis of the statement in the question. It is generalised in places but there is sufficient accurate place-specific detail to reinforce understanding of the main points on technology. The answer has a well-developed line of reasoning which suggests it was planned. It is clear and logically structured with seperate paragraphs for each of the main points. There is a useful introduction which demonstrates understanding of global supply chains and the issues involved. There is a brief conclusion which makes some attempt to refer to the question. This essay has scored 7/8 for knowledge and understanding and 6/8 for application of knowledge and understanding.

(Student Guide) Question 2 Increasing connectivity in global supply chains depends on modern technology, Discuss. (16 marks)
What to remember when solving for IQR?

Sort all data.

What to remember when solving for IQR?
(June 2018) Question 2 (a) (i) Study Fig. 3, which shows the share of intra-regional imports of merchandise within the EU for selected EU countries, 2014. Suggest two advantages of the data presentation technique in Fig. 3 for showing variation in the share of intra-regional imports of merchandise within the EU. (4 marks)

AO3 - 4 marks

2x1 for identifying an appropriate advantage of the bar chart used in Fig.3, to show variation in the share of intra- regional imports of merchandise within the EU.

2x1 for explaining the advantage.

The scattergraph plots data for 10 countries across the development continuum. Possible limitations include:

  • Clear / effective visual representation of the data in rank order of size allows comparison of individual countries contrasts between Germany and France and the UK or between Germany and Cyprus
  • accurate representation of the data since length of bars is proportional to the share of imports they represent Germany has twice share of UK
  • Placement of % figures at the end of each bar assists interpretation of the chart since precise data is shown Germany 20.9, Greece 0.8
  • Countries are named for each discrete bar which helps interpretation of the geographical / spatial pattern of imports, contrast between countries of western and eastern areas of the EU
  • Bar charts are a simple and widely understood technique; in this case the chart emphasises the large differences in import share between the wealthier more industrial countries in the west of the EU and the less wealthy countries of the east

Q2(a)(i) was answered well. Most candidates were able to identify two advantages of the bar chart presentation technique used in Figure 3 to show variation in percentage share of merchandise imports within the EU. Responses included the placement of percentage figures at the end of each bar, which assist in the accurate interpretation of the graph. Many candidates developed this advantage in terms of enabling clear distinction between bars of similar length and being able to make precise comparisons. Other valid advantages included the rank ordering of the bars from highest to lowest values, which, with the country names provided, enabled geographical patterns within the EU to become more evident. Although not essential for full marks, there was much good practice in supporting or clarifying the ideas by explicit reference to features of the bar chart and specific data.

(June 2018) Question 2 (a) (i) Study Fig. 3, which shows the share of intra-regional imports of merchandise within the EU for selected EU countries, 2014. Suggest two advantages of the data presentation technique in Fig. 3 for showing variation in the share of intra-regional imports of merchandise within the EU. (4 marks)
(June 2018) Question 2 (a) (ii) Study Fig. 3, which shows the share of intra-regional imports of merchandise within the EU for selected EU countries, 2014. Explain two factors that might account for the variation in imports shown in Fig. 3. (5 marks)

AO2 - 5 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse factors that might account for variation in imports could potentially include:

  • Size of population; directly related to demand for goods; higher total demand for goods may lead to higher amount / value of imports of merchandise; e.g. contrast Germany, 20.9%, large population, and Latvia, 0.3%, much smaller population.
  • Wealth / spending power of population; directly related to ability to purchase wide range / large amount of goods; higher total demand for goods leads to higher total value of merchandise imports; e.g. contrasts in wealth between UK, 10.2%, and Bulgaria, 0.6%
  • Scale of secondary industry related to purchasing power of manufacturers; and to demand for raw materials / component parts linked to value of imports; e.g. Germany, 20.9%, car manufacturers import components from other EU countries, by contrast Romania, 1.6%, manufacturing industry is on a smaller scale.
  • Diversified industrial structure / broader industrial base; greater overall purchasing power; and demand for component parts, imported more easily, without tariffs within EU; e.g. diverse industrial economy of France, 11.8%, narrower industrial base of Latvia, 0.3%.
  • Monetary policy of EU member states outside the Eurozone; might involve strengthening domestic currency against the €; makes imports from Eurozone cheaper and more in demand; e.g. stronger £ against € increases demand for imports in the UK

The better responses to Q2(a)(ii) identified two points clearly and succinctly in two short paragraphs. The most frequently stated reasons were variations in demand for merchandise in countries of differing population size or where there is differing wealth as might be expected between countries of the EU depending on level of development. A number of candidates also referred to variation in demand for imports of component parts required for manufacturing industry, which might be expected to vary between countries of differing industrial development within the EU. Encouragingly many candidates made valid and creditworthy reference to variations in merchandise import data from Figure 3 in support of their answers. Lower level responses demonstrated more limited explanation by giving only one reason or by simply stating factors in a basic undeveloped way.

(June 2018) Question 2 (a) (ii) Study Fig. 3, which shows the share of intra-regional imports of merchandise within the EU for selected EU countries, 2014. Explain two factors that might account for the variation in imports shown in Fig. 3. (5 marks)
(June 2018) Question 2 (b) With reference to one EDC case study, explain the current global pattern of its exports. (8 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Reference to a case study must be included; there is no requirement for a candidate to make reference to more than one case study.

Knowledge and understanding of the current global pattern of exports from any one EDC could potentially include:

  • Investment in infrastructure e.g. ports, airports, enables merchandise export to global markets; (e.g. India - refined petroleum, chemicals, pharmaceuticals to USA, EU, UAE, China, Singapore)
  • Export of services; (e.g. India - IT related and outsourcing services to wide range of global markets including ACs, other EDCs and LIDCs plus MNCs)
  • Capital exports e.g. industrial / MNC investments abroad (FDI); (e.g. India exports capital investment - China/Asian countries and ‘South’ markets in S. America and sub-SA)
  • Establishment of bilateral / multilateral trade agreements; (e.g. India and ASEAN/EU trading blocs, or India and China, Japan, Singapore, South Korea, Thailand)
  • Government policy; (e.g. India trade liberalisation, reduced tariffs, controls on foreign trade and investment have helped trade links between India and a wide range of global markets)
  • Natural physical resources of a country enable production of goods which are in demand from diverse countries;(e.g. India, gems, jewellery, cotton fabric exported to USA, China, UK)
  • Human resources, including skilled /educated labour force; (e.g. India, highly qualified IT workforce, exports IT services to businesses in Europe, North America, EDCs and MNCs)
  • Investment in technology in communications and transport increases global export markets; (e.g. India exports services and merchandise to wide range of ACs, EDCs and LIDCs)
  • Interdependence with trading partners helps establish and sustain trade links in merchandise, services and capital; (e.g. India and China, India and UK)

There were strong responses to Q2(b) in which explanation of the current global pattern of exports of one EDC was required. India was the most frequently chosen EDC on which this answer could be based. The best responses demonstrated thorough knowledge of the global pattern with reference to the countries involved as export destinations and the different types of export - merchandise, services and capital. Thorough understanding of the pattern was also demonstrated by reference to a range of valid reasons. For example, in the case of India there was discussion of trade agreements with individual countries and trading blocs, reasons for rapidly growing service exports, the impact of changing government policy, domestic investments in manufacturing industry and infrastructure, and investments abroad, all of which helped to explain the global pattern.The less strong responses tended to be of a generalised nature, without any detailed knowledge and understanding of the export pattern of a particular named EDC. Explanations tended to be basic with limited place-specific detail. Some candidates selected an inappropriate country, which could not be classified as an EDC.

(June 2018) Question 2 (b) With reference to one EDC case study, explain the current global pattern of its exports. (8 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 Series Overview for OCR A-level Geography (Human interactions)

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(June 2019) Paper 2 Series Overview for OCR A-level Geography (Human interactions)
(June 2019) Question 2 (a) (i) Study Fig. 3, which shows India’s exports of commercial services, 2000-2016. Suggest one advantage and one disadvantage of the data presentation technique in Fig.3 for showing India’s exports of commercial services. (4 marks)

AO3 - 4 marks

1x1 for identifying an appropriate advantage of the line graph used in Fig.3 for showing India’s exports of commercial services.

1x1 for explaining the advantage.

1x1 for identifying an appropriate disadvantage of the line graph used in Fig.3 for showing India’s exports of commercial services.

1x1 for explaining the disadvantage.

Advantages:

  • The line is effective in showing trends in data over time overall growth in exports of commercial services is immediately clear as the line rises between 2000 and 2016
  • The gradient of the lines clearly shows variation in rates of change for example the period of rapid growth between 2009 and 2011 contrasts with the slower rate of growth between 2000 and 2003
  • The line shows exceptions to overall growth / anomalies for example, fall in exports of commercial services 2008-9 is clearly shown
  • The line graph is a simple and familiar presentation technique with rise and fall of specific export values on the y-axis and time, from left to right, on the x-axis

Disadvantages:

  • The scale used for exports of commercial services on the y-axis, in millions of US$, makes it difficult to identify precise figures for each year for example the distinction between the figures for 2000 and 2001, 15/16/17m US$ is not clear
  • The straight lines joining the dots give the impression of regular change over the course of a year this is false; these are annual totals, 2000, 2001 etc which are discrete, not continuous, data
  • The graph shows only absolute values for India’s exports of commercial services and not percentage change
  • The line shows only total exports of commercial services and not the components such as transport, financial, ICT

Most candidates correctly identified one advantage and one disadvantage of the line graph in the context of India’s exports of commercial services. The most frequently cited advantage was that the line shows trends in data over time. Most candidates supported this with reference to the overall upward trend, using statistics identified from the graph. Other advantages offered were that the graph clearly showed exceptions to this trend, for example the fall in export value in 2008-9. The most frequently given disadvantage was the size of the scale on the y-axis, making it difficult to identify precise figures for any particular year. Other candidates correctly pointed to the use of a straight line between each of the annual totals, which disregarded any monthly or quarterly variation, or to the limitation of the graph in showing only total commercial services rather than specific components of this trade.

(June 2019) Question 2 (a) (i) Study Fig. 3, which shows India’s exports of commercial services, 2000-2016. Suggest one advantage and one disadvantage of the data presentation technique in Fig.3 for showing India’s exports of commercial services. (4 marks)
(June 2019) Question 2 (a) (ii) Study Fig. 3, which shows India’s exports of commercial services, 2000-2016. Give two reasons for the growth of commercial services globally in the 21st century. (5 marks)

AO2 - 5 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse reasons for growth in commercial services globally in the 21st century could potentially include:

  • Rapid economic growth of EDCs e.g. BRICS plus some LIDCs; where growth in commercial services has accompanied growth in merchandise and capital exports; growth in financial, communications, transport and ICT sectors has become essential for trade
  • Continued growth of AC economies; increase in number of MNCs which depend on a wide range of commercial services such as financial, legal and ICT services; many large companies now outsourcing services to reduce costs
  • Emergence and development of ICT services; linked to geographical spread of internet use; and interconnectivity of global communications, especially in developing countries, EDCs and LIDCs, of south and east Asia
  • Growth in travel services related to new tourist destinations; and to increasing disposable income / wealth of growing middle classes in EDCs.
  • Government investment in commercial service sectors; investment in education providing skilled workforce for the tertiary sector; essential for sustained economic development especially in EDCs and LIDCs.

The better responses to this question included two clear explanations in separate paragraphs. These tended to focus on how growth of commercial services can be linked to development of other forms of trade, such as merchandise, especially in EDCs and in LIDCs that are becoming more integrated into the global trade system. Explanations such as these were further developed by reference to specific commercial services, for example the growing importance of transport services and financial services which are essential elements of this trade. Other responses included the impact of the growth of TNCs, especially those newly emerging from EDCs, with their requirements for particular commercial services within supply chains. The significance of outsourcing of services and the development of tourism were also offered as appropriate examples of commercial activities which had stimulated growth in provision of various associated commercial services.Some responses, given in Level 1, were very brief, including no more than two sentences with only generalised statements for example referring to the influence of globalisation or improved technology and communications. Some candidates would have benefitted by developing their answers with further explanation and possibly exemplification.

(June 2019) Question 2 (a) (ii) Study Fig. 3, which shows India’s exports of commercial services, 2000-2016. Give two reasons for the growth of commercial services globally in the 21st century. (5 marks)
(June 2019) Question 2 (b) With reference to an AC case study, examine the political factors that explain its advantages for international trade.

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of political factors that explain the advantages of an AC for international trade could potentially include:

  • Stable, democratic government which has secure international relations with other national governments
  • Government ability to negotiate trade agreements which provide access to a range of global markets
  • Development of strong bi-lateral and / or multi-lateral trade relationships with its trading partners
  • Membership of transnational organisations which promote trade liberalisation such as WTO and trading blocs such as NAFTA or EU
  • Legacy of trade links established in former colonial times
  • Possible imposition of tariffs to protect domestic industry
  • Political decisions to invest in transport and technology which provide advantages for international trade

The majority of candidates selected the USA as their case study. Most candidates understood what was meant by a political factor and they were able to correctly identify a range of these factors. Those most frequently cited included the stable, democratic government, ability to negotiate trade agreements, membership of a trading bloc such as NAFTA, and ability to impose tariffs. Knowledge and understanding of these political factors tended to be good. The key to answering the question though depended on a candidate’s ability to link a political factor to the way in which it was advantageous for the chosen country’s international trade. The better responses made this link very clear and explicit. Often a candidate’s answer in the higher level was supported by accurate place-specific detail, including named trade agreements, trading partners, and statistical evidence of the trade.Responses in the lower levels tended to be descriptive, demonstrating knowledge of perhaps only one political factor or factors in very brief outline. Some candidates provided only basic, simple reference to the ways in which these factors are advantageous for the international trade of their chosen AC. Some candidates referred to factors which are advantageous for international trade but are not political.

(June 2019) Question 2 (b) With reference to an AC case study, examine the political factors that explain its advantages for international trade.
(June 2020) Question 2 (a) (i)

(June 2020) Question 2 (a) (i)
(June 2020) Question 2 (a) (ii)

(June 2020) Question 2 (a) (ii)
(June 2020) Question 2 (b)

(June 2020) Question 2 (b)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 2

(Sample assessment materials) Question 2
(Sample assessment materials) Question 2

(Sample assessment materials) Question 2
(Sample assessment materials) Question 2

(Sample assessment materials) Question 2
How can human rights be defined?

Human rights are the basic rights and freedoms to which all human beings are entitled. They are applicable at all times and in all places and they protect everyone equally, without discrimination.

How can human rights be defined?
What are human rights norms?

Human rights norms represent ways of living that have been inculcated into the culture of a country or area over long periods of time. They are the foundation fo human rights. It was on the basis of established customs and norms drawn from all cultures, religions and philosophies across the world that the UDHR was devised.

What are human rights norms?
Where are international human rights norms set out?

International human rights norms are set out as statements in the UDHR. These norms are derived from the long-established customs and ways of living, common to all societies across the world. Even though there are growing numbers of human rights norms, laws and treaties there is still significant global variation in their application and acceptance.

Where are international human rights norms set out?
What terminology is fundamental in appreciating that human rights issues are complex?

Understanding terminology such as norms, intervention, global governance and geopolitics is fundamental in appreciating that human rights issues are complex.

What terminology is fundamental in appreciating that human rights issues are complex?
What influences the global spatial variety in the patterns of human rights violations?

There are global inequalities in the spatial patterns of human rights violations. These variations are influenced by economic, social, political and environmental factors.

What influences the global spatial variety in the patterns of human rights violations?
What can the violation of human rights be both a cause and a consequence of?

The violation of human rights can be both cause and consequence of conflict.

What can the violation of human rights be both a cause and a consequence of?
What can strategies for the global governance of human rights involve?

Strategies for the global governance of human rights involve flows of people, money, ideas and technology.

What can strategies for the global governance of human rights involve?
What do you understand by the term ‘human rights norms’?

Human rights norms’ are established customary behaviours based on moral principles and ways of living inculcated into the culture of a country or area over a long period of time. Statements set out in the UDHR are drawn from such behaviour across the world and are generally accepted as human rights norms.

What do you understand by the term ‘human rights norms’?
What is meant by intervention by the global community in human rights issues?

Intervention by the international community includes the action of international organisation, or a group of states which have been authorised by the UN Security Council, in a foreign territory to end gross violations of human rights. This includes military force, economic sanctions, and the work of NGOs.

What is meant by intervention by the global community in human rights issues?
What is meant by ‘forced labour’?

Forced labour is when people are coerced to work through use of violence or intimidation, or by more subtle means of detention such as retention of identity papers.

What is meant by ‘forced labour’?
At the global scale, what is the relationship between spatial patterns of maternal mortality rates and levels of development?

An inverse relationship: the higher the maternal mortality rates the lower the level of development.

At the global scale, what is the relationship between spatial patterns of maternal mortality rates and levels of development?
Suggest reasons why female empowerment is important in the development process.

Female empowerment through education of girls and women helps them to move into the labour force of a country or area. It also helps to reduce total fertility rates, infant mortality rates and overall population growth rates. Family health and child nutrition improve and there is often poverty reduction.

Suggest reasons why female empowerment is important in the development process.
What is meant by the term ‘global governance’?

Global governance’ is the intervention by the global community, in all its formats, attempting to regulate issues, such as human rights, sovereignty and territorial integrity.

What is meant by the term ‘global governance’?
Outline the main ways in which the United Nations is involved in resolving human rights conflicts.

UN involvement includes its peacekeeping missions in areas off conflict to protect and promote human rights, coordination of the work of other international/regional organisations including NGOs, the establishment and reinforcement of human right norms, treaties and international laws, and creating sustainable development goals which are mostly human-rights based.

Outline the main ways in which the United Nations is involved in resolving human rights conflicts.
What role do flows of technology play in geopolitical intervention?

Flows of technology into conflict zones include use of social media, online tools, satellite imagery, drone aircraft and modern weaponry. These assist in geopolitical intervention by enabling databases and other information to be collected, to speed communications and intelligence in the coordination of strategies, and for accuracy in surveillance and air strikes in inaccessible and dangerous areas.

What role do flows of technology play in geopolitical intervention?
What is meant by CSOs?

CSOs are civil society organisations which include NGOs and other private organisations that are independent of governments, working voluntarily, either individually or collectively, in support of citizens and communities throughout the world.

What is meant by CSOs?
What is the role of NGOs in the global governance of human rights issues?

NGOs often work in conflict zones to assist local communities. Their role, in cooperation with other organisations, is significant in monitoring violence, education regarding human rights norms and laws, training in agricultural techniques, medical assistance, and reinforcing democratic processes.

What is the role of NGOs in the global governance of human rights issues?
Identify short-term benefits of intervention in human rights issues.

The short-term benefits of global governance for local communities in conflict areas include provision of medicine and medical treatment, shelter and sanitation, food and water and military protection.

Identify short-term benefits of intervention in human rights issues.
What are the negative impacts of military intervention over human rights issues?

Military intervention can have effects such as causing further Cillian casualties, population displacement, damage to property and infrastructure further disrespect for human rights, disruption of children’s education, and dependence on aid.

What are the negative impacts of military intervention over human rights issues?
UN and Human Rights (16 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 12/16 (AO1 8 marks/AO2 4 marks) = B+/A grade

The United Nations is a supranational organisation that coordinates peacekeeping missions, global security and other geopolitical issues. Human rights are the basic freedoms that a person is entitled to (such as free speech). Human rights are set out in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). The UN Security Council is a group of nations, including permanent members such as the UK; USA and China, who make decisions on deployment of soliders (e.g. peacekeepers).

Following the 911 World Trade Centre attack (11 September 2001) the UN Security Council met and agreed to set up the International Security Assistance Force (ISAF) mission (2001-2014) in Afghanistan which had the aim of removing the al qaeda terrorists. It could be argued that this mission, although not intentionally (primary aim was to remove terrorism), helped to protect the human rights of millions of Afghan women. This is because the taliban government, who sheltered al qaeda, were removed from power. From the 1980s the taliban enforced strict laws against women restricting their human rights. These include banning women from having power in the parliament. However, this progress in protecting human rights has been retracted with the end of ISAF (2014) and the end of the entire Afghanistan mission (2021) where the taliban was reinstated in government.

Arguably it coulde be civil society organisations (CSOs) which incorporates NGOs and other private organisations that are independent of governments, working voluntarily, either individually or collectively, in support of citizens and communities throughout the world. These CSOs could have more of an effect. The Red Cross (IRC) play a role in treating those that are ill within Afghanistan - for example administering vaccines (such as Tuberculosis) to infants. This protects the human right to life. This can be seen in Afghanistan where millions of children have been educated by UNICEF. This protects their human rights. Although these organisations are mostly coordinated by the UN to ensure transparency on progress.

Additionally, other supranational organisations such as the EU or NATO may have a role in protecting human rights in conflict. The Hague issues judgements against soldiers who infringe on human rights in conflict. Countries such as the US or UK may issue sanctions against countries infringing on human rights in conflict.

Additional examples of the UN intervening to offer protection to human rights in conflict includes peacekeeping and peace building missions. For example, in Mali, MINUSMA was established to help stabilise the country and to support the political process of re-establishing state authority. The aim was to protect civilians and to promote and protect human rights. The importance of the UN in this example is illustrated by the fact that it was able to involve over 11,000 military, police and other staff drawn from member states. Similarly the UN has intervened in the conflict in South Sudan where sovereignty is threatened by prolonged fighting between ethnic groups as well as the obstructive attitude of the government. Here the UN mission UNMISS was given a new mandate in 2014 to consolidate peace and help with state-building and development. The UN has been able to draw upon 16,000 military, police and other staff from around the world with an approved budget of over US$1 billion.

Overall, the UN normally plays a key role in the protection of human rights in conflict. This is because they are providing the protection themseles or are coordinating NGOs and CSOs in the protection of human rights. Other organisations are involved though such as countries issuing sanctions, NATO, EU and the Hague.

More evaluation required. You haven't fully linked your answer back to the question - To what extent do you agree that the UN strategies offer the most effective protection?

UN and Human Rights (16 marks)
The UN is the most important organisation in the global governance of threats to sovereignty.’ To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 14/16 = A grade

Global governance is the term used when the international community is called upon to deal with the serious threats to sovereignty and any ensuing humanitarian crisis. The threats to sovereignty can be external, for example when there is an act of aggression possibly over territorial claims, or internal as a result of human rights abuse, claims for independence, ethnic conflict, civil war or insurgency. These situations may require intervention by different types of organisation which tend to have different roles. The UN is an important international organisation which tend to have different roles. The UN is an important international organisation nearly always heavily involved. Others include regional organisations such as NATO, plus the many civil society organisations including NGOs and private enterprises.

The role of the UN in global governance is varied. In cases of humanitarian crises it may require the UN Security Council to sanction military intervention. This may be though necessary where severe human rights abuses are perpetrated, such as ethnic cleansing, and where the national government is either unable to protect its own citizens or it is actually allowing the abuse to happen. There was military intervention in Libya in 2011 by a coalition of countries including USA, UK and France following a Security Council resolution. On the same basis there was military intervention following a coup d’état in 2012.

Intervention by the UN also takes the form of peacekeeping and peace building missions. For example, in Mali, MINUSMA was established to help stabilise the country and to support the political process of re-establishing state authority. The aim was to protect civilians and to promote and protect human rights. The importance of the UN in this example is illustrated by the fact that it was able to involve over 11,000 military, police and other staff drawn from member states. Similarly the UN has intervened in the conflict in South Sudan where sovereignty is threatened by prolonged fighting between ethnic groups as well as the obstructive attitude of the government. Here the UN mission UNMISS was given a new mandate in 2014 to consolidate peace and help with state-building and development. The UN has been able to draw upon 16,000 military, police and other staff from around the world with an approved budget of over US$1 billion.

The UN also has an important role in provision of humanitarian aid. This is an aspect of intervention conducted by UN bodies such as UNCHR (refugees). UNICEF (children) and UNDP (development) and by associated organisations such as WHO (health). These all play a part in helping civilians in areas of conflict where sovereignty is challenged and the national government is unable to provide protection or basic needs such as food, water, health, shelter and education. This is particularly important in South Sudan where WHO has established a cholera treatment programme, where UNHCR assists over 1.5 million IDPs and refugees and where UNICEF is helping to provide food and water supplies and to assist the many children suffering malnutrition. In this particular case their role is very important in the face of continued fighting, human rights atrocities, conscription of children and an ineffective government.

The UN has a vital role in reinforcing the norms in the Charter of the United Nations by treaty-making. There is encouragement for states to sign and ratify treaties which binds them by International law for commitments to peace and security. For example the UN has managed to secure South Sudan’s signature of CEDAW and the Convention on the Rights of the Child.

While the UN has assumed an important role at all scales, other organisations also have significant inputs in conflict zones and in urgent humanitarian crises resulting from threat to sovereignty. These include regional organisations such as NATO which protects its 28 member states and other areas by its diplomatic role and its potential to deploy force. The EU has rapid response teams within the OSCE organisation, currently involved in monitoring the situation in eastern Ukraine where sovereignty has been threatened by territorial claims of the Russian Federation in Crimea for example.

There are many thousands of NGOs such as Médecins Sans Frontieères, Oxfam and the International Committee of the Red Cross which are very important in providing humanitarian aid in areas of conflict over sovereignty. They are international organisations but play significant roles 'in the field' working with individuals, families and communities in education, training, securing food and water supplies, medical aid and provision of shelter. They also are in a good position through co-operation to be effective in the roles of mediation, monitoring and providing early warning of new violence, ensuring local elections are more democratic and, by education, reinforcing norms and human rights.

It could be argued that even though other organisations such as INGOs play a vital role in global governance, the UN is the most important. It is involved in such as wide range of forms of intervention, it coordinates andd encourages cooperation in the work of all other agencies, organisations and governments, and its Security Council can give legitimacy to military action if necessary. The UN also has global reach involving the support of its member states. Moreover in the aftermath of any conflict or crisis it continues to promote the work of development through the UNDP agenda for sustainable development.

The UN is the most important organisation in the global governance of threats to sovereignty.’ To what extent do you agree with this statement? (16 marks)
What to remember when solving for IQR?

Sort all data.

What to remember when solving for IQR?
(June 2018) Question 5 It is the strategies of the UN which offer the most effective protection of human rights in areas of conflict.’ To what extent do you agree? (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of strategies of the UN and other organisations for protecting human rights in areas of conflict, could potentially include:

United Nations:

  • Authorising military intervention where thought necessary
  • Organising peace-keeping and peace-building missions which aim to protect civilians
  • Organising humanitarian aid through various UN agencies such as WHO, UNHCR, UNICEF
  • Co-ordinating the input of other organisations such as NGOs and national governments
  • Establishing treaties / conventions
  • Implementation of MDGs and SDGs under the longer term UN Development Programme
  • Promoting ideas and values via UN special representatives and rapporteurs

Regional Organisations

  • The work of other supra-national bodies such as NATO, EU, ASEAN

National Governments

  • Establishing Acts of Parliament creating new and more appropriate laws
  • Signing and ratifying treaties
  • Strengthening rule of law

NGOs

  • Working with local communities to provide education, food and water, medical aid, shelter
  • Reinforcing norms / human rights including rights of women, children and refugees
  • Ensuring local elections are more democratic

AO2 - 8 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate strategies of the UN and other organisations for protecting human rights in areas of conflict, could potentially include:

  • Effectiveness of UN strategies relative to those of other organisations such as regional organisations, national governments and NGOs which may be involved in different and specific aspects of human rights
  • Short-term benefits of UN organised intervention
  • Long-term benefits UN strategies for stability and subsequent development
  • Benefits of establishing treaties to safeguard human rights and UN effectiveness in encouraging countries to sign, ratify and conform to them
  • The importance of co-ordinating the work of different organisations and encouraging co-operation in promoting and protecting human rights in areas of conflict
  • UN intervention may have short term negative impact such as effects of UN sanctioned military intervention

Place-specific detail could be drawn from any instances of human rights violation in areas of conflict such as:Mali, South Sudan, Ukraine, Afghanistan

Q4* drew out a wide variety of discursive responses in which the effectiveness of the strategies of the UN and other organisations in protecting human rights in areas of conflict were evaluated.Many candidates wrote at length demonstrating considerable depth of knowledge and understanding of UN strategies and the roles of NGOs, national governments and other organisations such as NATO or the EU. There was thorough knowledge and understanding of a range of human rights issues such as the rights of women, the right to life, and education. Some candidates based their answer in the context of one country, others referred to two or three. The most frequently cited conflict zones where human rights have been violated included Afghanistan, Mali and South Sudan. The best answers included detailed knowledge of the strategies of the UN and its agencies in these locations as well as details of the work of specific NGOs and national governments.Higher level responses also demonstrated that candidates had been well-prepared to evaluate the relative effectiveness of the strategies. There was clear understanding that the requirement was to produce a discursive, extended piece of writing and that evaluative comments should be substantiated by evidence. Often this involved discussion of the effectiveness of strategies in the shorter- and longer-term, at differing geographical scales, in achieving Sustainable Development Goals, in the application of various treaties and laws, the importance cooperation and co- ordination, and various negative and unsuccessful impacts.A well-developed line of reasoning with clear logical structure was a feature of most of the better essays, as stated in Level 3 of the Quality of Extended Response. It was encouraging to see frequent use of essay plans, which led to many well-structured responses. These included introductions which demonstrated some interpretation and understanding of the question, use of paragraphs, each dedicated to a particular point, strategy or organisation, and a conclusion referring back to the question. There was much good practice in this respect.Lower level responses tended to include only very basic knowledge of UN strategies, human rights and areas of conflict. Understanding of the impact of UN and other strategies in protecting human rights tended to be restricted to broad, generalised statements. At this level, any evaluative comments, which were offered, tended to be simplistic, unsupported and often presented only at the end of the essay in a brief conclusion.

(June 2018) Question 5 It is the strategies of the UN which offer the most effective protection of human rights in areas of conflict.’ To what extent do you agree? (16 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 Series Overview for OCR A-level Geography (Human interactions)

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(June 2019) Paper 2 Series Overview for OCR A-level Geography (Human interactions)
(June 2019) Question 4 ‘Global governance of human rights issues is of greater consequence for citizens and places in the short term rather than the longer term.’ Discuss. (16 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 8 marks

Knowledge and understanding of short-term and longer-term consequences of global governance of human rights, could potentially include:

Short-term consequences (positive and negative)

  • Protection of civilians in areas of conflict by the actions of various peace-keeping missions
  • Provision of medical assistance / medicines, shelter, sanitation, food and water as humanitarian aid in areas of conflict
  • Negative impacts of military intervention include damage to property and infrastructure, population displacement, civilian casualties, disruption of education and further disrespect for human rights
  • Undermining of the local agricultural economy as a result of dependence on aid
  • Protection of rights of women and children in terms of personal safety in traditionally patriarchal societies through the work of NGOs in local communities and neighbourhoods

Longer-term consequences (positive impacts for development)

  • Improvement in health, life expectancy, including reduction of MMR and IMR through implementation of MDGs and SDGs under the UN Development Programme
  • Education equality, increased enrolment for girls and boys
  • Development of infrastructure, including transport which improves access to services
  • Freedom from abuse of women and children through the longer term work of NGOs in reinforcing accepted norms
  • Creation of anti-discrimination laws, strengthening rule of law and ratification of treaties / conventions by governments
  • Ensuring that elections are democratic and that political stability is achieved
  • Skills training and education programmes to ensure local agriculture is more sustainable in the long term

AO2 - 8 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate short-term and longer-term consequences of global governance of human rights, could potentially include:

  • Understanding that short-term effects may be positive, and an important prerequisite of longer-term policies, - or negative
  • Understanding that the longer-term effects are intended to contribute to the economic, social and political development of a country, region or local area
  • Relative significance of short-term (immediate relief) effects and longer-term effects (sustainable development)
  • The effects of global governance might be viewed in a range of contexts e.g. in areas of conflict, or in patriarchal societies where women are denied basic rights, or where a country is not meeting its legal and moral obligations to reduce IMR (possibly indicative of top L3)
  • Links to different global governance strategies and their effects in either the short or the longer term e.g. military intervention, implementation of SDGs, signing of treaties (indicative of L3).

Place-specific detail could be drawn from any instances of human rights violation, such as India, South Sudan, Afghanistan

There tended to be good understanding of the requirements of this question. Many candidates demonstrated thorough knowledge and understanding of global governance of human rights and its consequences. Responses were often set in the context of conflict zones such as South Sudan and Afghanistan and in countries where human rights issues have long pertained such as India and Honduras. Some candidates based their essay on one country, often an LIDC, and equally valid others demonstrated wider place knowledge with reference to two or three.There was much evidence of thorough knowledge and understanding of human rights issues themselves and the plight of people experiencing human rights violations; this included discussion and factual information of the right to life, population displacement, education, food security and gender inequality. There was encouraging, valid and interesting understanding of global governance strategies such as those of the UN, NATO, NGOs and links to the role of national governments. Many candidates demonstrated an ability to write in a discursive way to evaluate the impacts these strategies have in both short term and longer term.The better responses tended to be well-structured often displaying a clear introductory paragraph, sections on short term and long term impacts and a conclusion. It was encouraging to see the use of essay plans which clearly helped many candidates to organise their knowledge and thoughts concerning the issues involved.Some candidates achieving marks in the lower levels tended to discuss the consequences of the conflict or the human rights issues alone rather than the consequences of the global governance of those issues. Some responses were on the brief side where it was apparent that candidates had overspent their time on earlier topics / questions.Candidates should remember that the term global governance encompasses a wide range of geopolitical processes, organisations and actions. While all were not required to achieve a high mark this serves to show that responses could include not only knowledge of UN Peacekeeping Missions and the impact of specific NGOs, but also the work of the UN in its Development Programme in implementation of SDGs, its work on treaties plus other global and regional agencies. It might be helpful and instructive to consider details in the published mark scheme that provide an idea of the possible scope.Please note the ‘Candidate exam work’ box in Section A overview, at the start of this report, regarding timing in the examination.

(June 2019) Question 4 ‘Global governance of human rights issues is of greater consequence for citizens and places in the short term rather than the longer term.’ Discuss. (16 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question

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(Sample assessment materials) Question
Define climate change.

A long-term change to the climate (temperature) of Earth's lower atmosphere and surface. Can be positive or negative

Define climate change.
What is global warming?

A period of warming of the Earth's lower atmosphere and surface.

What is global warming?
What does the term ‘greenhouse gases (GHGs)’ mean?

Gases in the atmosphere, including water, methane, carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide which absorb long-wave radiation from the Earth's surface (terrestrial)

What does the term ‘greenhouse gases (GHGs)’ mean?
What is the enhanced greenhouse effect?
  • Every day, solar radiation reaches the surface of our planet from the Sun. It is then converted into thermal radiation which is then absorbed by atmospheric GHG’S (carbon dioxide, water vapour, methane, nitrous oxide, and countless others ) and is re-radiated in all directions. Some of this heat is absorbed by the Earth’s surface.
  • Known as the Greenhouse Effect, this process is essential to life as we know it. Without it, Earth’s surface temperature would be significantly lower, and many life forms would cease to exist. The natural greenhouse effect is positive in terms of sustaining life on Earth.
  • However, when excess amounts of greenhouse gases are put into the atmosphere by human activity (anthropogenic change), this natural warming effect is boosted to the point where it can have damaging, even disastrous consequences for life here on Earth.
  • This process is known as the Enhanced Greenhouse Effect, where the natural process of warming caused by solar radiation and greenhouse gases is heightened by anthropogenic (i.e. human) factors. The natural greenhouse effect is overwhelmingly negative BUT there are some positives i.e. tourism and plant growth.
What is the enhanced greenhouse effect?
What is embedded carbon in construction, e.g. in cement?

It can refers to the CO2 produced maintaining the building and eventually demolishing it, transporting the waste, and recycling it.

What is embedded carbon in construction, e.g. in cement?
Explain the GHG of water vapour.

Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas, but importantly, it acts as a feedback to the climate. Water vapour increases as the Earth's atmosphere warms, but so does the possibility of clouds and precipitation, making these some of the most important feedback mechanisms to the greenhouse effect.

Explain the GHG of water vapour.
Explain the GHG of carbon dioxide (CO2).

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a minor but very important component of the atmosphere, carbon dioxide is released through natural processes such as respiration and volcano eruptions and through human activities such as deforestation, land use changes, and burning fossil fuels. Humans have increased atmospheric CO2 concentration by 48% in last 200 years. This is the most important long-lived "forcing" of climate change.

Explain the GHG of carbon dioxide (CO2).
Why do we need CO2 in our atmosphere?

Every time we breathe out, we emit carbon dioxide just like all other metabolic life forms. Meanwhile, photosynthetic organisms like plants and algae take in carbon dioxide and emit oxygen. This balance has kept the planet at a comfortably warm average temperature of 14C (57F), compared with a chilly -18C (0F) if there were no carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Why do we need CO2 in our atmosphere?
Explain the GHG of methane (CH4).

Methane (CH4) is a hydrocarbon gas produced both through natural sources and human activities, including the decomposition of wastes in landfills, agriculture, and especially rice cultivation, as well as digestion and manure linked to domestic livestock. On a molecule-for-molecule basis, methane is a far more active greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide (25x), but also one which is much less abundant in the atmosphere.

Explain the GHG of methane (CH4).
Explain the GHG of nitrous oxide (N2O).

Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is a powerful greenhouse gas produced by soil cultivation practices, especially the use of commercial and organic fertilizers, fossil fuel combustion, nitric acid production, and biomass burning.

Explain the GHG of nitrous oxide (N2O).
Explain the GHG of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are synthetic compounds entirely of industrial origin used in a number of applications, but now largely regulated in production and release to the atmosphere by international agreement for their ability to contribute to destruction of the ozone layer. They are also greenhouse gases although found in much lower concentrations.

Explain the GHG of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
Explain the positive feedback that involves water vapour.

For every 1°C increase in temp caused by increased CO2 emissions, water vapour will double the warming , which will result in positive feedback thus intensifying the enhanced GH effect which increases evaporation, leading to more atmospheric vapour, more evaporation and thus perpetuating global warming.

Explain the positive feedback that involves water vapour.
What correlation is there between GHG emissions and population size and level of development?

There is a positive correlation between GHG emissions and population size and level of development - conversely, the countries that contribute the least, are often affected by changes, and least able to mitigate and adapt to global warming risks.

What correlation is there between GHG emissions and population size and level of development?
What has an increase in greenhouse gas emissions due to human activity led to?

An increase in greenhouse gas emissions due to human activity has resulted in the enhanced greenhouse effect which results in more long wave radiation being absorbed by the earth’s surface; positive feedback loops have resulted.

What has an increase in greenhouse gas emissions due to human activity led to?
What is the global energy balance?

The Earth and it's atmosphere is a closed system, so only energy can cross boundaries.

What is the global energy balance?
Outline the difference between shortwave and longwave radiation.

Shortwave radiation contains higher amounts of energy whereas longwave radiation contains a smaller amount of energy. Earth's radiation is emitted as longwave, as it is much cooler but still emits radiation.

Outline the difference between shortwave and longwave radiation.
What’s greenhouse conditions?

A warmer period associated with inter-glacial conditions due increased concentrations of GHGs.

What’s greenhouse conditions?
What’s icehouse conditions?

A colder period associated with glacial conditions due to decreased concentrations of GHGs

What’s icehouse conditions?
Define Mean Global Temperature Change.

IPCC predictions vary from 0.3 degrees - 4.8 degrees. Consensus is 2 degrees (unless we can reverse increases in GHGs)

Define Mean Global Temperature Change.
Define Mean Global Sea Level Change (MGSL).

Sea levels have risen by 1.5mm/year 1901-1990 but are now rising at 3mm/year. Projections suggest 0.38m - 0.98m sea level rise by the end of this century.

Define Mean Global Sea Level Change (MGSL).
What does the term ‘anthropogenic’ mean?

Originated by human activity. Geologists have suggested that we are now entering a new Anthropogenic ear.

What does the term ‘anthropogenic’ mean?
What is albedo?

The reflecting of solar radiation (shortwave) from the Earth's surface. White surfaces reflect more than dark.

What is albedo?
What is the quaternary period?

The current geological period - last 2.5 million years. Overall, temperatures have decreased in this time with 4 major glacial periods of approx. 100,000 years each, and 4 shorter inter-glacial periods.

What is the quaternary period?
What is a stadial?

A brief cold spell in Scotland approx. 11,700 years ago. The last glacial period in the British Isles.

What is a stadial?
Outline basic climate change facts.
  • Since the concept of net zero was agreed in Paris, +120 countries have made net zero/carbon neutral commitments.
  • COVID-19 in 2020 temporarily reduce human emissions of GHGs (the ‘anthropause’) with a 7% drop in CO2 recorded - but not sustained change and we continue to add approx. 51 billion tonnes of GHGs to the atmosphere every year.
  • Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions have increase since pre-industrial times (approx. 200 years ago), but particularly in the last 50 years.
  • Scientists agree this is both directly, and indirectly as a result of human activity.
  • CO2 atmospheric concentrations are currently (Nov 2021) 415 parts per million (PPM), which is the highest for 800,000 years - there is an average increase of 3 ppm.
  • CH4 (2021) atmospheric concentrations are currently 1.7 parts per million (PPM), but although significantly lower than CO2, it has 25x the global warming potential of CO2.
  • COP21 (Paris 2015) agreed we need to limit warming to no more than 2ºC but aim for 1ºC.
  • Sea-level rise is already 20cm but the last time we had atmospheric concentrations of Carbon Dioxide of 415 ppm, sea levels were 10-20m higher.
  • In 2021, the world is almost 1.2ºC warmer than in the pre-industrial period (approx. 150-200 years).
  • IPCC report (August 2021) is clear that we are on-track to see warming of 2.7ºC based on current global strategies.
  • There is a 40% chance of seeing the 1.5ºC threshold exceeded in at least one year by 2025.
  • Michael Mann hockey stick acknowledges that as world population increases, so does the release of (exponential and positive feedback).
Outline basic climate change facts.
Outline facts on the Conference of the parties (COP21 and COP26).
  • COP21 (Paris 2015) agreed we need to limit warming to no more than 2ºC to avoid a climate emergency but aim for 1.5ºC
  • To achieve this World Leaders need to ensure countries are carbon neutral (net zero) by 2050 - 90% have set carbon neutral dates, but many are later than this.
  • Current commitments by World Leaders will see a rise of 2.7ºC.
  • COP26 (Nov 2021) commitments by World Leaders will see a rise of 2.4ºC
  • The last time we had atmospheric concentrations of Carbon Dioxide of 415 ppm, sea levels were 10-20m higher.
  • Deforestation to be ended by 2030 - singed by most of the Worlds largest contributors (Brazil, Indonesia, Malaysia, DRC).
  • Methane reduction deal signed by many countries and China/USA pact to work together to further reduce emissions.
  • Phase down, not phase out coal - India, China, Russia and Australia blocked efforts to reach a deal to be coal zero by 2030.
  • No financial support to help Island nations and LIDCs to make transition to net zero (mitigate) and use technology to adapt to changes.
  • We are still on track for 2.4ºC (was 2.7ºC) heating and 1m sea-level rise.
  • COP27 (2022) will see countries review NDCs to review 2030 target to try to move closer and "keep alive" 1.5ºC goal.
Outline facts on the Conference of the parties (COP21 and COP26).
What is the difference between external and internal natural forcing?

Natural forcing mechanisms cause climate change. External ones are from outside the Earth, e.g. amount of solar output. Internal forcings operate within the Earth, e.g. amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

What is the difference between external and internal natural forcing?
What factors are responsible for sea-level rise?

Sea-level rise is caused by the thermal expansion of water as the oceans warm. The melting of ice sheets and glaciers causes water to flow from where it is stored as ice on land to the oceans.

What factors are responsible for sea-level rise?
What is the significance of the global warming potential (GWP) of different gases?

Even if a gas is not particularly common in the atmosphere, if it has a high global warming potential (GWP), it can seriously impact global warming. Carbon dioxide is not as effective as other gases in trapping energy but because there is so much carbon dioxide, much warming takes place.

What is the significance of the global warming potential (GWP) of different gases?
Why has ocean acidification the potential to have a very serious impact on both marine ecosystems and human populations?

Ocean acidification will result in population crashes among organisms in the bottom trophic level, thereby affecting all marine ecosystems for food and other resources, and these will be damaged if these ecosystems are put under severe stress.

Why has ocean acidification the potential to have a very serious impact on both marine ecosystems and human populations?
What is the difference between mitigation and adaption in the context of climate change?

Mitigation refers to measures aimed at reducing the level of climate change, namely restricting the rise in global temperatures by reducing GHG emissions. Adaption refers to measures aimed at defending people and environments from the effects of climate change, such as managed realignment of the coastline and the use of GM crops.

What is the difference between mitigation and adaption in the context of climate change?
What are the 6 methods of reconstructing past climate.

Tree rings (dendrochronology), fossil pollen, corals, ice cores, marine & lake sediments, fossils.

What are the 6 methods of reconstructing past climate.
Explain the method of tree rings (dendrochronology) in reconstructing past climate.

The study of tree rings or dendrochronology is the dating of past events such as climate change through study of tree ring (annule) growth. Annules vary in width each year depending on temperature conditions and moisture availability.

Thick wide rings indicate periods of fertility when precipitation is high and narrow rings indicate drier periods. Evidence needs to be handled with care as tree rings can be affected by other variable, e.g. soil, pollution and wind.

Explain the method of tree rings (dendrochronology) in reconstructing past climate.
Explain the method of fossil pollen in reconstructing past climate.

The amount of pollen deposited in a given time period indicates the abundance of vegetation, high concentrations indicating warmer periods. Species found in savannah ecosystems have been identified in the Amazon basin indicating drier conditions in the past.

Explain the method of fossil pollen in reconstructing past climate.
Describe the accuracy of fossil pollen.

Continental drift may have an impact on the accuracy of fossil pollen as

Describe the accuracy of fossil pollen.
Explain the method of corals in reconstructing past climate.

Higher concentrations of heavy isotopes indicate warmer ocean temperatures and lighter cooler temperatures - this has coincided with records of temperatures in the Atlantic ocean.

Explain the method of corals in reconstructing past climate.
What does more oxygen found within corals mean?

More oxygen suggests that the climate was cooler.

What does more oxygen found within corals mean?
Explain the method of ice cores in reconstructing past climate.

Ice cores from the polar regions contain tiny bubbles of air - records of the gaseous composition of the atmosphere in the past. Scientists can measure the relative frequency of hydrogen and oxygen atoms with stable isotopes. The colder the climate, the lower the frequency of these isotopes.

CO2 was stable over the last millenium until the early 19th century. However, its concentration is now nearly 40% higher than it was before the industrial revolution CH4 has doubled since pre-industrial levels.

Explain the method of ice cores in reconstructing past climate.
Explain the method marine & lake sediments in reconstructing past climate.

The ratio oxygen isotopes 16 and 18 can be analysed to determine historic ocean temperatures. Sediments rich in heavier oxygen isotopes (oxygen-18) indicate cold temperatures and match with past ice ages.

Explain the method marine & lake sediments in reconstructing past climate.
Explain the method of fossils in reconstructing past climate.

Plants and animals require specific environmental conditions to thrive. Some, such as coral reefs, are highly sensitive to temperature, water depth and sunlight. Where they exist in the fossil record they can be used as proxies for climate. Animals are more adaptable. However, some herbivorous dinosaur species only survived in sub-tropical habitats.

Explain the method of fossils in reconstructing past climate.
Describe patterns of fossils in the UK (evidence of past climate).

A range of species have been identified globally, including many along the UK's Jurassic coastline, such as Ammonites that indicate that temperatures were once warmer in the past.

Describe patterns of fossils in the UK (evidence of past climate).
Why may fossils not be an accurate method of reconstructing past climates?

Fossils may not be an accurate method of reconstructing past climates as a result of continental drift (movement of tectonic plates due to convection currents which are driven as a result of radioactive decay).

Why may fossils not be an accurate method of reconstructing past climates?
Describe the formation of Antarctica (6 marks)

Today the entire continent of Antarctica is covered by a vast ice cap that extends to sea level. This is the largest glacial system on the planet, containing 25-30 x 106 km3 of glacial ice. The ice cap is so thick that only the tops of the highest mountains appear above the ice.

40 million years ago, the fossil record shows that the continent experienced sub-tropical conditions.

The descent of Antarctica into a permanent icehouse state occurred rapidly around 35 million years ago. This transition to icehouse conditions has been explained by changes in atmospheric CO2 and tectonic processes. CO2 levels dropped abruptly 35 million years ago, from 1000-1200 parts per million (ppm) to 600-700 ppm.

Continental drift: the movement of Antarctica towards the South Pole, and away from South America and Australia, isolated the continent. This allowed the Antarctic Circumpolar Current to insulate Antarctica from the warmer water further north.

The growth of the South Sandwich Islands' submerged volcanic arc disrupted deep-water ocean currents around Antarctica, isolating the continent from warmer water from the South Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.

Describe the formation of Antarctica (6 marks)
How much ice does Antarctica contain?

25-30 x 106 km3 of glacial ice.

How much ice does Antarctica contain?
What is natural forcing?

The physical factors which cause climate fluctuations (tectonic activity - ocean currents - solar energy (sunspots) GHGs - Milankovtich Cycles)

What is natural forcing?
Name the 6 natural forcings.

Milankovitch cycles (obliquity, eccentricity, precession of the equinoxes), volcanic eruptions, plate tectonics + continental drift, ocean circulation, natural greenhouse gases, solar output.

Name the 6 natural forcings.
Categorise the 6 natural forcings by whether they are internal or external.

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Categorise the 6 natural forcings by whether they are internal or external.
What did Milanković argue about long-term climatic shifts?

Milutin Milanković argued that long-term climatic shifts such as glacial cycles are caused by astronomical events such as changes in the Earth's axis and orbit and the precession of the equinoxes. These external forcing mechanisms affect the amount of solar radiation reaching the planet's surface and its spatial and temporal distribtion. They operate on timescales that vary from 10,000 to 100,000 years. Milankovitch identified climate cycles at 100,000, 43,000, 24,000 and 19,000 years, with long glacial periods followed by shorter inter-glacials.

What did Milanković argue about long-term climatic shifts?
Name each of the 3 Milankovic cycles.

Obliquity (tilt of the Earth's axis), Eccentricity of the Earth's orbit, Precession of the equinoxes.

Name each of the 3 Milankovic cycles.
Explain the Milankovic cycle: obliquity (tilt of the Earth's axis).

Over a period of around 40,000 years the Earth's axial tilt (perpendicular to its orbital plane) varies from 22º to 24.5º (current tilt is 23.4º). When the tilt is close to 22º, seasonal temperature differences are reduced, i.e. summers are cooler and winters are warmer. As a result, snow and ice, accumulated during winter, do not melt during the summer, allowing glaciers and ice sheets to expand. This has a positive feedback effect, increasing the reflection of incoming solar radiation and lowering temperatures even further.

Explain the Milankovic cycle: obliquity (tilt of the Earth's axis).
Explain the Milankovic cycle: eccentricity of the Earth's orbit.

The Earth's orbit around the Sun follows an elliptical path. The eccentricity of the orbit varies from near circular to markedly elliptical over periodicities of 96,000 and 413,000 years. With maximum eccentricity, differences in solar radiation receipt of around 30% occur between perihelion (when the Earth is closest to the Sun) and aphelion (when the Earth is furthest from the Sun). Ice ages correspond to periods of maximum orbital eccentricity.

Explain the Milankovic cycle: eccentricity of the Earth's orbit.
Explain the Milankovic cycle: precession of the equinoxes.

The Earth gyrates on its axis like an enormous spinning top, so that the point in the Earth's orbit when the planet is closest to the Sun (perihelion) changes over time. This shift or precession which occurs with a periodicity of arounds 22,000 years is due to the gravitational influence of the Moon and Jupiter and affects the intensity of the seasons. If perihelion occurs during the northern hemisphere's winter, winters will be warmer and summers cooler. Snow and ice accumulating in winter will not melt completely in the following summer, so that ice and snow cover expands, eventually triggering a glacial period.

Explain the Milankovic cycle: precession of the equinoxes.
What is the difference between perihelion and aphelion?

Perihelion is where the Earth is closest to the Sun, conversely aphelion is where the Earth is furthest from the Sun.

What is the difference between perihelion and aphelion?
Explain the natural forcing of volcanic eruptions.

Explosive eruptions (e.g. stratovolcano on a subduction plate boundary) pump huge amounts of volcanic ash and sulphur dioxide into the stratosphere. Such eruptions have the potential to change the global climate, at least in the short term. Although volcanic ash is quickly removed, sulphur dioxide is more persistent and has a cooling effect. In the atmosphere, sulphur dioxide is converted to sulphuric acid, which forms sulphate aerosols. These aerosols reflect solar radiation back into space and lower temperature in the troposphere.

The Mount Pinatubo eruption in the Philippines on 15 June 1991, one of the largest in the 20th century, injected 20 million tonnes of sulphur dioxide into the stratosphere and, over a period of 3 years, cooled the Earth's climate by 1.3ºC.

Explain the natural forcing of volcanic eruptions.
Give an example of volcanic eruptions as a natural forcing.

The Mount Pinatubo eruption in the Philippines on 15 June 1991, one of the largest in the 20th century, injected 20 million tonnes of sulphur dioxide into the stratosphere and, over a period of 3 years, cooled the Earth's climate by 1.3ºC.

Give an example of volcanic eruptions as a natural forcing.
Explain the natural forcing of plate tectonics + continental drift.

Driven by plate tectonics and sea-floor spreading, the global distribution and configuration of the continents have changed dramatically over geological time - 250 million years ago the continents formed a single huge land mass: Pangea. Since then the continents have drifted apart to their present-day position.

Tectonic changes on this scale have a direct impact on the global climate. In part they explain the periodic extreme shifts of the Earth's climate between greenhouse and icehouse conditions. For example, as a larger continental area occupies higher latitudes, the land area with permanent ice cover expands. This in turn increases global albedo and positive feedback, which forces global cooling.

Explain the natural forcing of plate tectonics + continental drift.
Explain the natural forcing of ocean circulation.

Ocean currents are a vital component of the global energy budget, transferring surplus energy (i.e. warm water) from the tropics to the poles. Continental drift can modify ocean circulation and energy transfer. This happened around 5 million years ago with the formation of the Isthmus of Panama, which joined the North and South American continents, and closed the 'gateway' between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.

It is believed that this event intensified the Gulf Stream, conveying warm surface water from the Caribbean to the North Atlantic. As a result, evaporation and precipitation increased and the prevailing westerly winds deposited more precipitation in the North Atlantic, Europe and Siberia, diluting the salinity of the North Atlantic and Arctic Oceans.

North Atlantic circulation

Explain the natural forcing of ocean circulation.
Explain the natural forcing of natural greenhouse gases.

We have seen that there is a close relationship between atmospheric CO2 levels and average global temperatures. Periods of icehouse Earth, such as the past 3 million years, correspond with low levels of CO2 in the atmosphere which reduce the Earth's natural greenhouse effect. During the past 800,000 years, when the Earth's climate has been dominated by numerous glacial periods, CO2 levels have fluctuated between just 170 ppm and 300 ppm. Yet in the Pliocene, 3-5 million years ago, atmospheric CO2 concentrations were around 400 ppm and temperatures 2-3.5ºC above today's average. Fifty million years ago CO2 levels reached 1000 ppm; average global temperatures were 10ºC higher, the poles were ice-free and sea level was 60m higher than it is today.

Such changes beg the question of how CO2 is removed from the atmosphere. Plate tectonics and continental drift offer an explanation. In the Tertiary era tectonic plate movements created extensive fold mountain ranges such as the Himalayas, Andes and Rockies. Uplift of these mountains increased rainfall, erosion and chemical weathering by rainwater charged with CO2 (carbonic acid). Thus large volumes of CO2 were removed from the atmosphere and transferred to storage in carbonate sediments in the oceans. At the same time, the increase in nutrients in the oceans stimulated vast blooms of phytoplankton, which also extracted CO2 from the atmosphere. When these organisms died, the CO2 was trapped in deep-ocean sediments.

Explain the natural forcing of natural greenhouse gases.
Explain the natural forcing of solar output.

The Sun's output is not constant but varies markedly over time. On timescales measured in millenia or centuries, these variations may be shown to contrubute to climate change. Observations of sunspot activity have been made for at least 400 years and used as a proxy for solar output. There is a positive ocrrelation between the number of sunspots and solar energy output. Only in the past 30 years or so have satellites been able to measure solar irradiance more accurately.

Solar output follows an 11-year cycle. However, the difference in energy output between maximum and minimum sunspot activity is only 0.1%: not enough to impact global climate significantly.

On longer timescales solar output is more variable. Near the end of the seventeenth century the number of sunspots declined to almost zero for several decades. This was the so-called Maunder Minimum and corresponded to the severe winters in Europe known as the 'Little Ice Age'. A similar period of low activity, the Dalton Minimum, occurred in the early 19th century. In the past 50 years, sunspot activity has been relatively high and coincides with a warming of the global climate. Nonetheless, isolating the impact of variations in solar output from other influences, such as volcanic eruptions, human activity and feedback effects, is difficult.

Explain the natural forcing of solar output.
How can humans respond to climate change? (PDF)

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How can humans respond to climate change? (PDF)
A table identifying the changes caused by rising atmospheric CO2 and global warming.

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A table identifying the changes caused by rising atmospheric CO2 and global warming.
Assess the significance of positive and negative feedback in relation to our current period of rising CO2 levels and global warming. CHALLENGE: Include CO2 and temperature data to support points.

Indicative Content

Feedback loops, which are a response to a change in a system, occur within all physical systems, including the carbon cycle. Positive feedback amplifies change, such as the decrease in forest cover resulting which increased atmospheric concentrations of CO2, currently at approx. 415 ppm, and increasing at a rate of 3 ppm/year, which further reduces forest cover through an increase in wild fires triggered by extreme heat and periods of drought. Negative feedback restores balance to a system, such as increasing forest cover to sequester more CO2 and thus reduce CO2 ppm, and lower temperatures.

The current period of enhanced greenhouse effect is an example of dynamic equilibrium, with positive feedback loops resulting in significant changes in the carbon cycle, as CO2 as released from long-term stores, back to the atmosphere, and has resulted in temperatures approx. 1.2°c above pre-industrial levels, and predicted to increase to at least 2°c but possibly as high as 4°c.

Assess the significance of positive and negative feedback in relation to our current period of rising CO2 levels and global warming. CHALLENGE: Include CO2 and temperature data to support points.
Describe the most optimistic scenario as set out by the IPCC. You MUST include data in your answer

The IPCC’s most optimistic scenario is a temperature increase of only 0.3°c by the end of the century (2100).

Describe the most optimistic scenario as set out by the IPCC. You MUST include data in your answer
Describe the most pessimistic scenario as set out by the IPCC. You MUST include data in your answer

The IPCC’s most pessimistic scenario is a temperature increase of 4.8°c by the end of the century (2100). They predict 2.4°c as the most likely scenario.

Describe the most pessimistic scenario as set out by the IPCC. You MUST include data in your answer
Explain how a changing global energy balance resulting in global mean temperature increasing by at least 2 degrees Celsius, will impact on mean global sea level change (MGSL). You MUST include data in your answer.

Indicative Content

The global energy balance is the difference between inputs (short-wave solar radiation) and outputs (long-wave solar radiation). The two balance the system is in equilibrium. At present, the global energy balance is in dynamic equilibrium, with inputs exceeding outputs resulting a global mean temperature rise of 1.1°c since pre-industrial times, and predicted to increase to at least 2°c by 2100. As a result, MGSL change is also set to increase due to both increase volume of water due to the melting of the cryosphere and thermal expansion. Between 1901 and 1990 MGSL change was 1.5 mm / yr, however as temperatures have increased, by 2010 this rate of increase has reached over 3 mm/ yr. Sea levels are predicted to rise between 0.28m - 0.98m by 2100, but this could be higher if the Antarctic ice sheet melts as some climate change modelling scenarios suggest.

Explain how a changing global energy balance resulting in global mean temperature increasing by at least 2 degrees Celsius, will impact on mean global sea level change (MGSL). You MUST include data in your answer.
Alongside MGSL rises, temperatures of oceans will also increase. Suggest how this helps to explain why we are now in a climate emergency (you should refer to positive feedback)

Indicative Content

As ocean temperatures rise, further positive feedback loops will be triggered putting ecosystems at further risk. For example, higher ocean temperatures will warm the climate and result in more evaporation and therefore more atmospheric moisture. Water is a powerful GHG so this will lead to further warming (although could be partially off-set by increased cloud cover). Warmer oceans will also put phytoplankton at risk, which will reduce sequestration of CO2 by oceans, again resulting in higher atmospheric concentrations (CO2 ppm are increasing by 2 ppm/ yr) and increasing the GHG effect to move us toward exceeding the 1.5°c increase since pre-industrial times, threshold identified by the IPCC.

Effects of warmer oceans on extreme weather include enhanced risk of droughts in some parts of the world, and flooding in other due to changes in the water cycle, and more frequent and extreme tropical storms as oceans increasingly exceed the 26.5°c required to form tropical storms.

This all suggest that we are in a climate emergency.

Alongside MGSL rises, temperatures of oceans will also increase. Suggest how this helps to explain why we are now in a climate emergency (you should refer to positive feedback)
Define an ecosystem

Ecosystems are communities of flora (plants) and animals (flora) and other organisms existing interdependently within the physical environment.

Define an ecosystem
Outline the impacts of changing climate on coral reefs (a marine ecosystem). You MUST include facts in your answer.

Indicative Content

Global warming is resulting increased sea surface temperature (SST). A rise of 1-2°c will result in bleaching and the death of coral reef ecosystems around the world. For example, in Indonesia 50% of the coral reefs have been destroyed in the last 40-50 years, and in the Caribbean this is even higher at approx. 80%.

Outline the impacts of changing climate on coral reefs (a marine ecosystem). You MUST include facts in your answer.
What is the the leading cause of coral bleaching?

The leading cause of coral bleaching is climate change. A warming planet means a warming ocean, and a change in water temperature - as little as 2 degrees Fahrenheit - can cause coral to drive out algae. Coral may bleach for other reasons, like extremely low tides, pollution, or too much sunlight.

What is the the leading cause of coral bleaching?
Outline the impacts of changing climate on Arctic Ocean (a marine ecosystem). You MUST include facts in your answer.

Indicative Content

Warming temperatures (approx.1 degree Celsius increase since pre-industrial times and predicted to increase to at least 2°c by the end of this century), have also affected the Arctic ocean, located at 66° North. As the ocean has warmed so the extend of sea ice has decreased, this has impacted on the amount of sea algae which is an essential part of the food chain. Less ice cover also equates to a loss of habitat for marine mammals such as walrus and seals who rely on floating sea ice for ‘transportation’ to seek food, and also to rest and give birth to pups. As seal population decline, Polar Bear numbers are projected to decline by 60% by 2050 as they have lost their primary food source.

Outline the impacts of changing climate on Arctic Ocean (a marine ecosystem). You MUST include facts in your answer.
Outline the impacts of changing climate on seas around the UK (a marine ecosystem). You MUST include facts in your answer and should refer to phenology.

Indicative Content

SST’s around the UK have increased by approx. 1.6°c in the last 40 years. This affects the food chain in a similar way to the Arctic Ocean, resulting in loss / change of biodiversity. For example, cold water species such as cod and haddock have migrated to higher latitudes and are being replaced by warm-water species such as sea bass and hake. This is an example of how phenology is affecting our biodiversity.

Outline the impacts of changing climate on seas around the UK (a marine ecosystem). You MUST include facts in your answer and should refer to phenology.
Define phenology

The study of the changes in the timing of seasons and other natural seasonal events i.e. flora and fauna life cycle events.

Define phenology
Define tundra

Tundra is areas at high latitudes where the sub-soil is almost permanently frozen.

Define tundra
Explain the impact of climate change on terrestrial habitats. You MUST include facts / located examples in your answer

CHALLENGE: Link your ideas to positive feedback.

Key terms to include: habitat - wetlands - forests - permafrost - tundra - migration - Arctic - Cairngorns

Indicative Content

Global warming is also affecting terrestrial (land based) habitats, particularly in the Arctic tundra where temperatures are rising faster than any other ecosystem. As temperature rise the permafrost thaws and therefore the extend of wetlands increases. CHALLENGE: This will reduce albedo resulting in more solar radiation being absorbed and therefore triggering more warming; positive feedback loop.

Higher temperatures will also see an increase in forest cover as the milder temperatures will allow the tree (limit beyond which trees cannot grow) to extend northwards (CHALLENGE: which could see carbon sequestration increase and perhaps partially counterbalance increase albedo to restore equilibrium in these areas). Warming and changes to Arctic tundra will also affect the migration of species such as caribou (reindeer) who have traditionally spent their summer in the tundra, and also see the loss of some species from areas such as mountain tundra in Scotland. A 1°c rise in temperature can result in species having to migrate uphill by 200-275m to maintain the same habitat.

Explain the impact of climate change on terrestrial habitats. You MUST include facts / located examples in your answer
Explain the impact of climate change on the timing of seasons. You MUST include facts / located examples in your answer

Key terms to include: global warming - phenology - hibernation - Continental Europe

Indicative Content

Global warming has significantly impacted on seasons and life cycles of flora and fauna, the study of which is known as phenology. The IPCC estimates that in the last 30 years, spring has occurred an average of 2.3-5.2 days earlier per decade. The disrupts the life cycles of flora and fauna. For example, animals are now awakening from hibernation before their food sources such a leaves and insects are available to eat, which puts their survival at risk.

In continental Europe there have been changes in the migratory patterns of birds as they are now able to survive at higher latitudes so don’t have to move south as winters in the UK are milder.

Explain the impact of climate change on the timing of seasons. You MUST include facts / located examples in your answer
Explain why impacts of climate change on both marine and terrestrial ecosystems will vary spatially

Impacts will vary spatially as temperatures of seas and the Earth’s surface varies. For example, tundra regions are warming faster than other areas of the World. It therefore follows that in these areas the effect on marine and terrestrial ecosystems will be more severe than in other areas of the World.

Explain why impacts of climate change on both marine and terrestrial ecosystems will vary spatially
Identify how many additional deaths the World Health Organisation forecasts 2030-2050 due to climate change and the resultant spread of infectious (mostly vector-borne) diseases, malnutrition and diarrhoea.

250,000 per year (5 million over 20 year).

UPDATED: COVID19, which is linked to climate change in terms of more vectors to transmit the disease (due to changes in the food chain) and warmer temperatures in which to incubate, has claimed at least 2 million lives globally (Jan 2021).

CHALLENGE: Outline a further reason why deaths may increase.

Any example from:

  • Extreme weather - Heat stroke / hypothermia
  • Extreme weather - droughts or floods or frost damage to crops (food shortage)
  • Extreme weather - High winds food shortages, and damage to buildings etc)

(food shortages also = more vulnerable to disease and other health issues)

Identify how many additional deaths the World Health Organisation forecasts 2030-2050 due to climate change and the resultant spread of infectious (mostly vector-borne) diseases, malnutrition and diarrhoea.
Explain how rising mean global temperatures can have a negative effect on the health of human population. You MUST include evidence (facts) and located examples in your answer.

Key terms to include: vector-borne - Malaria - Dengue Fever - Lyme Disease - Diarrhoea - drought - flooding - food production - malnutrition - WHO

Indicative Content

As temperatures rise, the World Health Organisation (WHO) have warned to major negative effects on human health.

For example, the the geographical range of vector borne diseases will increase, as will the number of vectors as they thrive in warmer climates. For example, Malaria is spread by mosquitos which require warm and wet conditions, therefore in a warmer, wetter world the disease will spread to currently Malaria free areas such as Mediterranean regions. Currently in LIDC’s, largely in Africa and South East Asia there are 800,000 preventable deaths per year, but this will rapidly increase.

Other vector borne diseases which will rise in a wetter, warmer world, include Dengue Fever which is now found in the USA, as well as tropical and sub-tropical regions, and Lyme Disease has spread to north Europe and Canada.

A 1°c rise in temperature has also caused issued with food production due to more frequent and prolonged period of extreme weather, such as flooding (often as a result of tropical storms), and drought.

CHALLENGE - you need to be able to refer to recent located examples

This has already seen an increase in cases of malnutrition in many LIDC countries i.e. in 2019 there are famines in Yemen, and South Sudan, and Cyclone Idai destroyed crops in Mozambique, Zimbabwe and Malawi in March 2019.

UPDATE: COVID19

Explain how rising mean global temperatures can have a negative effect on the health of human population. You MUST include evidence (facts) and located examples in your answer.
Explain why impacts of climate change on people due to changes in food production, will vary spatially.

Impacts on people due to changes in food production will vary spatially as terrain and climates vary across the world. Also, more developed countries are better able to mitigate the impacts due to either technological advances to adapt to the changes, or they are able to import food to counteract shortages in domestic food production.

Explain why impacts of climate change on people due to changes in food production, will vary spatially.
Examples of extreme weather events.
  • Tropical storms
  • Tornadoes
  • Heavy precipitation (flooding/blizzards)
  • Extremes of heat (heatwaves/severe cold spells)
  • Droughts
Examples of extreme weather events.
Using Fig. 10.10 pg 315, describe the nature and distribution of three extreme weather phenomena and outline the impact of these events on people, economies and society.

CHALLENGE: Apply geographic knowledge of world events, to add a recent (last 2 years) located example of each of your three chosen extreme weather events.

Key terms to include) (dependent on your choice of weather event: latitude - continents - oceans - desertification - heat islands - storm surge - heat island effect - coastal areas / management - monsoon

Indicative Content

One example of an extreme weather event, which is thought to be at least partially explained by our changing climate is tropical storms. These require ocean temperatures of 26.5°c so are currently restricted to topical and sub-tropical latitudes, but as oceans warm the geographical range of tropical storms, as well as the intensity and frequency will increase.

Impact of these types of events include social and economic, and include structural damage to homes, businesses and infrastructure. These come at a huge economic cost to countries, and, particularly for LIDC’s and EDC’s recovery can be very slow - or impeded by subsequent natural hazards. Ultimately, extreme storms can permanently displace people from home, or even populations from countries.

CHALLENGE - you need to be able to refer to recent located examples

For example, Cyclone Idai which affected Mozambique, Malawai and Tanzania in March 2019. At least 1,300 people died, and crops were destroyed resulting in severe food shortages.

For example, in Sept 2017 Barbuda in the Caribbean was almost entirely destroyed by Hurricane Irma, the most powerful storm in the northern hemisphere. 95% of the island’s infrastructure was destroyed and the island was evacuated. In 2019, people have not yet been able to return to their homes.

Secondly, heatwaves are already being experienced more frequently, and with record breaking temperatures. The effects of these are exacerbated in urban areas (by 2050, 75% of the World’s population, estimated at 10 billion, will live in urban areas), where the heat island effect due to the amount of infrastructure and high density living, is most intense.

Impact of these types of events include social and economic, and can be as extreme as death, and extreme heat exhaustion. Heatwaves can also trigger wildfires, and loss of crops due to lack of water (drought is often a result of an extensive heatwave due to increased evaporation of surface water).

CHALLENGE - you need to be able to refer to recent located examples

For example, in July 2019 Japan experienced extreme heat, with temperatures regularly exceeded 100°f. Despite being one of the richest and most developed countries in the World, this still caused at least 57 deaths (mostly elderly), and approx.19,000 people being hospitalised. Scientists have made a direct correlation between this extreme weather, and global warming.

For example, wildfires in Calfornia destroyed the town of Paradise in 2018, and there was also extensive damage in the same areas in 2019. New South Wales in Australia (close to Sydney) also experienced an extreme and extended wildfire season in 2019.

Finally, heavy rainfall can result due to increased frequency of low-pressure weather systems which bring excessive rain over a long period of time, creating saturated, and therefore impermeable ground, resulting in high rates of surface runoff which causes flash flooding as river capacity is exceeded. This can occur in mid-latitudes such as the UK and other northern European countries, but also in south east Asia when monsoon rains arrive May - June and rains falls on dry, and therefore impermeable, ground (wet / dry seasons).

Impact of these types of events include social and economic, as flooding occurs causing damage to homes, businesses and infrastructure. The extent of the effects is largely dependent on the level of development and population density of the area affected as this will impact on the ability of governments to mitigate and / or adapt.

CHALLENGE - you need to be able to refer to recent located examples

Storm Desmond which affected Cumbria, UK in December 2019 and left 1,000 homes destroyed, and 50,000 people without electricity due to 341mm of rainfall in 24 hours, preceded by several weeks of rain resulting in saturated ground conditions, and flash flooding. The same areas, and other cities such as Sheffield and Derby were flooded in November 2019 due to 83mm of rainfall in one day, falling on saturated / impermeable ground.

Using Fig. 10.10 pg 315, describe the nature and distribution of three extreme weather phenomena and outline the impact of these events on people, economies and society.
Explain one positive effect of climate change on the UK’s economy.
  • Increased tourism revenue + explained
  • Ability to grow additional crops i.e. grapes + explained
Explain one positive effect of climate change on the UK’s economy.
The VULNERABILITY of people to climate change depends on:
  • Where you live
  • Ability to cope

Vulnerability will be affected by rural or urban living and is generally, more extreme in rural areas due to the impact of unreliable rainfall (and diminishing annual glacier meltwater) on agriculture for food and trade - particularly in LIDC’s where populations in rural areas are still largely subsistence farmers, and the country’s economy is still based on primary production.

Populations in low-lying coastal areas are most vulnerable to rising sea levels, and in the tropics and sub-tropics this will be further exacerbated by increased intensity and frequency of tropical storms.

For example, Cyclone Idai, March 2019, which affected Mozambique, Zimbabwe, and Malawi, killing more than 1,300 people and causing over US$2 billion damage (the costliest tropical cyclone in the South-West Indian Ocean basin, and second deadliest).

The VULNERABILITY of people to climate change depends on:
FRAGILE ECOSYSTEMS are most vulnerable to climate change
  • Tundra (high latitudes, and including The Arctic)
  • Rainforest (tropical and sub-tropical latitudes, and including The Amazon)
  • Mountainous areas (global distribution)
  • Hot semi-arid environments (latitudes 20 degrees N/S)
  • Coast i.e. coral reef systems
FRAGILE ECOSYSTEMS are most vulnerable to climate change
Explain how two contrasting environments which are vulnerable to climate change.

Indicative Content

All areas of the World are being affected by rising temperatures, but some ecosystems are more vulnerable than others.

Mountainous areas, particularly in higher latitudes, are being affected by warmer temperatures causing glacier retreat. As the cryosphere melts, the thawing will add moisture to the ground which increases risk of flooding and mass movement i.e. landslides. As the snow line retreats, and permafrost melts, the volume of water in rivers will increase which will increase risk of flooding, and also increase atmospheric water vapour. Water is a GHG therefore trapping more heat and increasing ice melt; positive feedback.

In contrast, hot and semi-arid environments found 20° north and south of the equator in sub-tropical climates, will experience unreliable rainfall which can result in more frequent, and longer lasting droughts. Loss of vegetation cover will result in increased aeolian soil erosion, which, over time, can result in desertification. Loss of vegetation cover will also reduce rates of sequestration and reduce our capacity to store carbon, which will increase atmospheric levels of CO2 and thus cause further warming; positive feedback.

Explain how two contrasting environments which are vulnerable to climate change.
Assess the significance of these change to future climate change.

These changes both trigger positive feedback scenarios, which will mean that temperature will rise further as more heat is trapped at the Earth’s surface, thus leading to future warming and a very real risk that temperature rise will exceed the 2°c threshold at which catastrophic damage will occur to the Earth’s ecosystems.

Assess the significance of these change to future climate change.
Other than the two environments already discussed, outline the threat to vulnerable environments posed by global warming.

Any two not already discussed

  • Rainforests + explained
  • Coastlines (low lying land) + explained
  • Tundra + explained
  • Mountains
  • Hot semi-arid environments
Other than the two environments already discussed, outline the threat to vulnerable environments posed by global warming.
Assess the significance of these changes to future climate change.

AS ABOVE i.e. These changes both trigger positive feedback scenarios, which will mean that temperature will rise further as more heat is trapped at the Earth’s surface, thus leading to future warming and a very real risk that temperature rise will exceed the 2°c threshold at which catastrophic damage will occur to the Earth’s ecosystems.

Assess the significance of these changes to future climate change.
Using Fig.10.31 pg. 308, describe the global distribution of vulnerability to climate change
  • Overall
  • Data + examples

Indicative Content

Overall Figure 10.31 shows that vulnerability to climate change (the risk of a country / population to be affected by, and then mitigate against climate change), varies spatially with more vulnerable countries being in tropical or sub-tropical LIDC’s, and the least affected countries, those with little or moderate risk being in the Americas, northern Africa, Oceania, and Europe. There is correlation between risk and type of ecosystem, level of development, and population density. For example, Russia has only low risk which is despite having tundra areas which are one of the more vulnerable ecosystems. This is because it is very sparsely populated to direct risk to people is minimal.Using Fig.10.31 pg. 308, describe the global distribution of vulnerability to climate change

A choropleth map to show global distribution of anthropogenic GHG emissions in 21st Century.

Click here to view the image

A choropleth map to show global distribution of anthropogenic GHG emissions in 21st Century.
Mitigation strategies to cut global emissions of greenhouse gases includes.

Energy efficiency and conservation, fuel shifts and low-carbon energy sources, carbon capture and storage, forestry strategies, geongineering.

Mitigation strategies to cut global emissions of greenhouse gases includes.
Adaption strategies to reduce the vulnerability of human populations at risk include.
  • Framework of adaption (retreat, accommodate, protect) and its implementation in response to possible future implications of climate change in a range of communities across the development continuum
  • What future homes, offices, cities, transport and economies will look like following adaption throughout the 21st century.
Adaption strategies to reduce the vulnerability of human populations at risk include.
How are both mitigation and adaption linked to level of development of countries?

Both are intrinsically linked to level of development of countries and the willingness of people (led by governments and global organisations) to accept that we need to do so. This is in conflict with economic development and requires compromises to made to protect the environment over economic gain.

How are both mitigation and adaption linked to level of development of countries?
Outline the difference between ‘mitigation’ and ‘adaption’. You should use an example to support each point.

Mitigation is use of long term strategies to reduce the likelihood of climate change i.e. reducing GHG emissions and atmospheric concentrations, whereas adaption is reacting to global warming by making immediate changes to reduce the effects of climate change i.e. building homes away from low lying land at risk of flooding, or developing drought resistant crops

Outline the difference between ‘mitigation’ and ‘adaption’. You should use an example to support each point.
Brief outline of each of the mitigation strategies.
  • Enhanced Rate Weathering (ERW) whereby the volume of rock exposed at the Earth’s surface is increased which in turn increasing the volume of Carbon sequestered through weathering. Basalt dust, which is a by-product of mining is most effective. This also increases agricultural productivity so is a very sustainable, and cheap mitigation strategy which can be widely used regardless of level of development. This has the potential to sequester billions of tonnes of carbon which would then be locked-away in a long term store (slow carbon cycle). (https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2020/jul/08/spreading-rock-dust-on-fields-could-remove-vast-amounts-of-co2-from-air)
  • Energy efficiency i.e. reduce energy consumption. For example: UK in 2014 there was a 6.6% reduction energy consumption despite economic growth of 3%. Achieved due to increased awareness of our impact on the environment - BUT challenging to achieve on a global basis due increasing global population, and increasingly wealth of the majority).
  • Change in energy mix i.e. low or carbon-zero energy sources such as nuclear and renewables (wind - solar - hydro). For example: UK by 2018 50% of our energy is from carbon-zero sources, and we have committed to 100% by 2050. In total, 60 countries and 100 cities have adopted the same, or similar commitment to zero-emissions energy sources (Oct 2019).
  • Carbon capture and storage (CCS) which uses technology to extract CO2 from coal burning power stations and transfer it to long-term storage in rocks. For example: Drax power plant in Yorkshire, or Boundary Dam in Canada. Also CarbFix Project in Iceland where emissions of carbon from the geothermal power plant are injected back into the granite rocks.
  • Orca Plant, Iceland

    World’s biggest machine capturing carbon from air turned on in Iceland | Carbon capture and storage (CCS) | The Guardian

    Orca - the world's first large-scale direct air capture and storage plant (climeworks.com)

  • Geo-engineering which refers to the large-scale use of technology to modify the environment i.e mirrors to reflect incoming solar radiation, fertilising oceans to increase growth of phytoplankton to increase ocean sequestration of CO2, or exposing more rock surfaces to achieve enhanced weathering which will absorb more CO2 or development of artificial trees to sequester CO2.
  • Reforestation i.e. the UN REDD Programme to incentivise LIDC’s to reduce deforestation and increase afforestation scheme.
  • https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2020/oct/20/last-ditch-ideas-to-save-the-arctic-ice
    • A layer of glass beads on the surface of the Earth to reduce albedo and trigger a cooling feedback loop (negative feedback).
    • Underwater seawalls to protect the underside of glaciers from melting due to warmer oceans.
    • Rewilding the Arctic tundra to preserve the permafrost and therefore reduce emissions of methane and carbon stored in this layer of frozen ground.
    • Wind powered pumps to spray ocean water onto the ground where is will freeze to increase ice cover and therefore reduce albedo and trigger a cooling feedback loop (negative feedback).
    • Solar geoengineering such as injecting calcium carbonate into the atmosphere as this will absorb more of the Sun’s incoming solar radiation (but could harm the Ozone Layer).
    • Peat expansion. If peat moss was able to flourish due to higher temps, the tundra could potentially offset some of the effects of climate change in the region. This is already in evidence.
Brief outline of each of the mitigation strategies.
Suggest two reasons why renewable energy targets for 2020 vary between individual countries

Any two from:

  • Government ideologies which determine policies
  • Population density
  • Level of development
  • Extent to which effects have impacted on the country
  • Terrain / ecosystem
Suggest two reasons why renewable energy targets for 2020 vary between individual countries
Discuss the feasibility of two geoengineering strategies to mitigate increased GHG emissions (you must discuss positive and negatives to consider the overall effectiveness)

Indicative Content

Geoengineering is the use of technology to modify the environment on a large scale. Strategies include -any two from:

One example of geoengineering technology currently being developed is to create reflecting plates (mirror) in orbit or on the Earth’s surface to reflect incoming radiation This would counteract the loss of surface albedo sue to meting cryosphere, but this would be very expensive and intrusive. Effectiveness not yet tested.

A second example, again still being developed is seeding the stratosphere (above the troposphere) with aerosols that will scatter incoming radiation back into space. Space is ‘common’ space so in theory there should be not governmental issue to doing this, but still very difficult to achieve, and would be very expensive. Effectiveness not yet tested.

OR

OR

Advanced weathering by increasing crushing silicate rich rocks to increase their surface area to increase the absorption of CO2 from the atmosphere. Eventually, these carbonates would settle on the ocean floor as long term carbon storage. This is low cost solution, with potential to have a significant impact in increasing absorption of CO2

Discuss the feasibility of two geoengineering strategies to mitigate increased GHG emissions (you must discuss positive and negatives to consider the overall effectiveness)
Outline the challenges of CCS as a strategy to mitigate increased GHG emissions.
  • Expensive (hopefully costs will decrease as technology develops and it becomes more widely used
  • Large amounts of energy required to separate the CO2 and compress it (up to 20% of a power plant’s output)
  • Limited by geology as dependent on porous rocks
  • Prohibitively expensive to limited to level of development
Outline the challenges of CCS as a strategy to mitigate increased GHG emissions.
In total there are over 100 risks identified. Suggest 3 additional risks posed to the UK by climate change.

Indicative Content

  • Increased risk of heat stroke and heat related illness and even death
  • Increased coastal erosions and costs incurred to protect coastlines as sea levels risk
  • Increased cost of insurance premiums due to higher risk of coastal flooding (sea levels & increased erosion) and river flooding (extreme low pressure weather events)
In total there are over 100 risks identified. Suggest 3 additional risks posed to the UK by climate change.
Name the 3 main categories for ADAPTATION.
  • RETREAT i.e. move from vulnerable areas such as those threatened by coastal flooding
  • ACCOMODATION i.e. adjust farming practises to accommodate climate change
  • PROTECTION i.e. protection against increased health risks, coastal flooding and moderating urban heat islands.
Name the 3 main categories for ADAPTATION.
A table to outline each of the 3 approaches and evaluate how effective you think this approach will be.

Click here to view the table

A table to outline each of the 3 approaches and evaluate how effective you think this approach will be.
What is drip irrigation?

Drip irrigation is an irrigation system that aims to save water and nutrients by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants (targeted), either from above the soil surface or buried below the surface. The goal is to place water directly into the root zone and minimise evaporation. Drip irrigation systems distribute water through a network of valves, pipes, tubing, and emitters.

What is drip irrigation?
Why might strategies which you think are most the most effective in supporting buildings to adapt to high temperatures not be viable everywhere?

Not all countries have adequate funds to allocate to strategies such as those aforementioned. Spatial factors also.

Why might strategies which you think are most the most effective in supporting buildings to adapt to high temperatures not be viable everywhere?
What is geoengineering?

The deliberate large-scale of manipulation of an environmental process that affects the earth's climate, in an attempt to counteract the effect of global warming. Solar reflection and CO2 removal.

What is geoengineering?
Name the 7 geoengineering strategies.

Enhanced Rock Weathering (ERW), Carbon Capture, Artificial Trees, Space Orbital Mirrors, Cloud Whitening/Reflectivity, Increasing Urban Albedo Rates, Ocean Fertilisation.

Name the 7 geoengineering strategies.
A table showing the 7 geoengineering strategies.

Click here to view the table

A table showing the 7 geoengineering strategies.
What are additional geoengineering strategies?

Walkers' Carbon Capture and Use (CCU), The Earthshot Prize.

What are additional geoengineering strategies?
Describe Walkers' Carbon Capture and Use (CCU) Strategy
  • Crisps firm Walkers has adopted a technique it says will slash CO2 emissions from its manufacturing process by 70%.
  • The technology will use CO2 captured from beer fermentation in a brewery, which is then mixed with potato waste and turned into fertiliser. It will then be spread on UK fields to feed the following year's potato crops.
Describe Walkers' Carbon Capture and Use (CCU) Strategy
Strategies from the Earthshot Prize
Strategies from the Earthshot Prize
When are air temperatures the warmest in the UK?

During the summer months, e.g. June, July, August.

When are air temperatures the warmest in the UK?
When are the sea temperatures the warmest in the UK?

October as heat is absorbed from the summer months.

When are the sea temperatures the warmest in the UK?
Why would coasts be more mild during the winter months?

Because the sea temperature is warmer as a result of the absorbed heat from the summer. Snow and frost may be less common during these times.

Why would coasts be more mild during the winter months?
What are the two climate change case studies?

Australia and Bangladesh.

What are the two climate change case studies?
Australia case study presentation.
Australia case study presentation.
Bangladesh case study presentation.

Click here to view the presentation

Bangladesh case study presentation.
Australia and Bangladesh Case Studies Overview

Australia and Bangladesh Case Studies Overview
Who is the Prime Minister of Australia?

Scott Morrison is the PM and was elected in 2018.

Who is the Prime Minister of Australia?
What is the population of Australia?

Population 25.7 million. 80% of the population live in coastal areas, e.g. Sydney (the country’s largest city and chief port, pop. 5.3mn), therefore many at risk from coastal flooding.

What is the population of Australia?
What is Australia’s HDI?

HDI of Australia is 0.944.

What is Australia’s HDI?
3 relevant Australia facts.
  • Population of 25.5 million with an average life expectancy of 83.5 (2020).
  • Australia’s Human Development Index (HDI) is ranks 8th highest in the world (2019) on factors such as life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators (which determine human development).
  • The Prime Minister is a climate change sceptic; he has invested in new coal burning power stations since he was elected in 2019.
  • Largest export is coal (2nd largest global exporter) with 40,000
3 relevant Australia facts.
What was the cost of wildfires 2019-20?

Overall cost of wildfires is estimated at US$3.0 billion (the 2019/20 drought cut GDP by 0.5%) - this was compounded by Covid-19 travel restrictions which have reduced revenue form tourism.

What was the cost of wildfires 2019-20?
What was the rate at which the 2019/20 drought cut GDP?

What was the rate at which the 2019/20 drought cut GDP?
By approx. what % have rainfall totals in southern Australia fallen since 1990’s?

Rainfall totals in southern Australian have fallen 15% since the 1990s.

By approx. what % have rainfall totals in southern Australia fallen since 1990’s?
Outline the impact of rising sea levels on the coastline.

Outline the impact of rising sea levels on the coastline.
Outline two impacts of the Millenium Drought 1996/2010

Outline two impacts of the Millenium Drought 1996/2010
Explain 3 long-term mitigation strategies.

Explain 3 long-term mitigation strategies.
Explain 3 adaptations (short-term).

Explain 3 adaptations (short-term).
Overall, I agree/disagree with the approach of the Australian government - you must give reasons to support your decision.

Overall, I agree/disagree with the approach of the Australian government - you must give reasons to support your decision.
Who is the Prime Minister of Bangladesh?

Who is the Prime Minister of Bangladesh?
What is the population of Bangladesh?

What is the population of Bangladesh?
What is Bangladesh’s HDI?

What is Bangladesh’s HDI?
3 relevant Bangladesh facts.

3 relevant Bangladesh facts.
(Homework Revision Exam Practise Booklet) Explain how geoengineering can cut global emissions of greenhouse gases (6 marks)

Level for the essay question: L3 (5/6) out of 6 marks = A* grade (83.3% or 100%)

Geoengineering is the deliberate manipulation of environmental processes to mitigate climate change. Can be CO2 removal (e.g. enhanced rate weathering, carbon capture, artificial leaves, ocean fertilisation) or solar reflection (e.g. solar orbital mirrors, cloud whitening, urban albedo).

One strategy is enhanced rate weathering (ERW) where rock reacts with water and air to sequester GHG of CO2 in carbonate. Costs range from $80 (India) to $160 (USA) which are within target range of spend per unit of CO2. Billions of tonnes could be removed so would need to be used with other strategies. Limestone dust is already used; can be quickly implemented and increase crop yield. Basalt dust is widely available as a result of mining.

Artificial leaves/trees utilise sorbent tiles and 'passive direct air capture' (PDAC) to capture CO2. CO2 can be sequestered or sold. Can capture 1,000 times more than natural photosynthesising trees and could be implemented faster - although cost may be an issue (new tech needs R+D). At scale decreases albedo as absorbs more radiation.

(Homework Revision Exam Practise Booklet) Explain how geoengineering can cut global emissions of greenhouse gases (6 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Extract 1 in identifying the causes of climate change. (3 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 3/3 = A* grade (100%)

A phrase such as 'increased rapidly' is not really useful, as it doesn't tell you anything about the levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The annual increases are also not useful, as the text doesn't say what the actual level of carbon dioxide is. Simply saying 'other greenhouse gases are significant' is not useful, as it doesn't say what they are. The text says that these are 'naturally present' but that human activity 'also influences their concentrations', however you don't know if these gases are increasing or if it is due to natural causes or humans.

It's good that the student quotes the text more than once, as this makes it clear to the examiner that s'he is making direct use of the resource. The limitations of the statistics, the vagueness of some statements and the comment about natural or human causes are appropriate limitations to highlight.

(Student Guide) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Extract 1 in identifying the causes of climate change. (3 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 1 (b) Explain how geoengineering may reduce the impact of global warming. (4 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 6/6 = A* grade (100%)

Geoengineering is when scientists use technology to stop global warming. There are two types of geoengineering, one way is to stop so much solar energy from coming into the atmosphere and the other is to reduce the amount of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide being produced by humans. Stopping solar energy is very difficult and may involve putting giant mirrors out in space to reflect the sun's rays. This will be very expensive and will need lots of countries to cooperate in paying for it. Another way is to inkect billions of small particles into the atmosphere, which will intercept the sun's rays before they reach the surface and scatter the rays. Much of the sun's energy will be sent back into space and so reduces global warming.

Some people have suggested that we should spread iron particles in the oceans, called fertilisation. This will mean that the oceans will have more nutrients and will allow organisms like phytoplankton to grow. These microscopic organisms absorb carbon dioxide because they photosynthesise. There is also an idea of artificial trees made of plastic that can absorb carbon dioxide, which is then stored underground.

The answer deals directly with he topic of geoengineering, starting by defining what it is. The student then shows that their knowledge and understanding of the topic is thorough and well-developed by referring to several geoengineering techniques. The student has kept a sharp focus on the command word 'explain' and not drifted off into analysis of the feasibility of geoengineering, apart from in one sentence.

(Student Guide) Question 1 (b) Explain how geoengineering may reduce the impact of global warming. (4 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 6 Assess how climate change may bring about changes to the water cycle in tropical rainforests. (12 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 7/12 = C grade (58.3%)

Tropical rainforests are one of the most important ecosystems on the planet. They cover the land around the equator and extend up towards the tropics. The Amazon is an example. The water cycle in the rainforest is very active s there is so much water and high levels of energy. The energy comes from the sun, which is very intense all year and means that the temperature is high, usually above 25ºC. The high temperature means that there is a huge amount of water vapour going into the atmosphere above the rainforest, which means that clouds can form and more rainfall happens. The trees also give off water vapour.

Climate change is happening all over the world. Because human activities are producing more greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide and methane), more of the sun's energy is being kept in the atmosphere and so global warming is taking place. This means that more evaporation can happen and this affects the water cycle. This might mean that there is more rainfall but because the air is warmer, it may not rain as much.

In the rainforest, global warming might result in it becoming less wet as the pattern of rainfall changes. It could also be the result of deforestation, as this alters the water cycle and means that less rain occurs. If this happens then more of the rainforest will become grassland. Deforestation can be because humans are clearing the forest but it could also happen naturally, as there is less rainfall and the trees die.

The response starts promisingly with the focus on the water cycle in the tropical rainforest and some encouraging knowledge and understanding shown. The material on climate change has potential but lacks detail, so that the student's knowledge and understanding is only reasonable. The crucial area of making synoptic links between climate change and the rainforest's water cycle is present but not as clear as it might be '...as the pattern of rainfall changes'. Not writing separate paragraphs about the two topics, climate change and rainforest water cycle, is more likely to lead to a response linking the topics more successfully. There is some analysis, as the command word 'assess' indicates there should be, regarding human influence on the rainforest's water cycle, but this is not substantial.

(Student Guide) Question 6 Assess how climate change may bring about changes to the water cycle in tropical rainforests. (12 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 11 To what extent have international directives such as the Kyoto Protocol reduced the impacts of climate change? (33 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 25/33 (AO1 7 marks/AO2 18 marks) = A grade (75.7%)

The Kyoto Protocol began in 1997 and was aimed at cutting emissions of carbon, mainly carbon dioxide. It is a legally binding agreement although it's first period ended and now it is a voluntary agreement. Other directives also exist, which aim to reduce the effects of climate change.

Climate change is seen as one of the most serious threats because it is probably going to affect so many different things, such as rising sea levels, coral bleaching and food production. Temperatures have been rising for over 100 years and the last 40 years have been rising particularly quickly. The year 2016 was the hottest since records began in the late 19th century and the third hottest year in a row.

The causes of climate change are called forcing. Some of these are natural but none of these are responsible for global warming. It is pretty much certain that humans have been changing the balance of GHGs, which is causing more of the sun's energy to be trapped by the greenhouse effect. Burning fossil fuels is a major source of carbon dioxide and methane comes from agriculture such as livestock and rice farming.

When the IPCC started to give its reports, people decided that action needed to be taken to stop global warming. Many countries supported action such as Kyoto, but some important ones didn't. The USA, for example, didn't and now with Donald Trump as president they are against taking action against global warming. Russia also didn't sign originally, but has since signed. Russia has now reduced its carbon emissions by just over 50%, which is more than their Kyoto target. Countries like Switzerland and Spain missed theur Kyoto target by over 10%.

A major problem with directives like Kyoto is that if the large emitters of GHGs don't sign up then global warming is just going to carry on. China and India are EDCs so they argue that in order to get their living standards to rise then they should not be limited in their emissions. However, China in particular has begun to stop building coal-fired power stations. Although its emissions will still be vast, it is beginning to change its attitudes and this will help reduce the impacts of climate change.

At the Paris Conference in 2015, many countries agreed to limit global warming to 20%. The problem with the Paris Agreement is that countries will set their own voluntary targets, which might not be enough. Obama did sign these agreements but Trump wants to take the USA out of this. One of the main problems with international agreements is that politics mean that if there is a chang eof government in a country, the new leaders may not agree with signing.

Carbon dioxide levels are now above 415 ppm (rising 3 ppm / year), which is higher than for hundreds of thousands of years. One of the problems is that some gases stay in the atmosphere for very long periods and so carry on trapping heat. Directives such as Kyoto and Paris are trying to do something and any reduction in global warming is going to take many decades to happen. However, doing nothing is only going to make the situation much worse and so Kyoto may have a good effect in the future.

The opening paragraphs immediately take the essay in an appropriate direction. The brief outline of the Kyoto Protocol and the statements about climate change and its causes and impacts are clear and convincing.The following three paragraphs continue the focus on international directives and offer some analysis and evaluation as to how effective they have been. It is encouraging that the student has kept up to date with events concerning climate change, such as the Chinese reappraisal of coal-fired power generation and the different direction resulting from political change in the USA.The concluding paragraph's focus on emissions is relevant, as an increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide level is an impact, and overall there is good material on some of the issues affecting international directives. However, the response as a whole is thin on impacts such as sea-level rise, food production, disease distribution and geopolitical tensions. More could be made of actions to adapt and mitigate against some of the consequences of climate change.

(Student Guide) Question 11 To what extent have international directives such as the Kyoto Protocol reduced the impacts of climate change? (33 marks)
(June 2019) Question 11 Examine how impacts of climate change can affect informational representations of place. (11 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 11/12 = A* grade (91.7%)

Informational representations of a place can include movies, photos, paintings, blog posts, etc. These are very different to formal representations which include factual statistics taken from governmental records such as censuses. Informal and formal data can show completely different sides of a place. Climate change is a growing problem effecting the entire world but especially poorer LIDCs. Climate change is global news and is reported about in a number of ways. If a place has experienced climate forced hazards such as floods or droughts, this could be reported on the news and viewers could see horrific pictures supporting the story. Photos of a place is probably the best way to cause emotion in people as they can see the real life situation stead of just hearing basic statistics. However, photos of a place will change perceptions of it and this could lead to a decrease in tourism there if people see how devastating the impacts of climate change are. This could really hurt the economy. On the other hand this could lead to an increase of foreign aid into the area and also help the climate change debate by showing real life impacts it causes. If a place has suffered from climate change hazardous or effects such as the meeting of the ice caps, this could lead to more informal representation being created such as documentaries. These documentaries could help raise awareness for climate change and could address what could be done to help it.

More informal representations of a place might not always be good, for example if someone typed Bangladesh into Google Images they would see images of devastating cyclones an floods and not the positive side of Bangladesh, like their tight communities.

Different political leanings of different newspapers could also effect informal representation. If a newspaper is right leaning they may present photos showing no effects of climate change whereas a left leaning newspaper like The Guardian will show the bad effects of climate change.

These contrasting informal representations could confuse the public on the real impacts of climate change.

This response gives an authoritative introduction of the difference between formal and informal representation of place. This is also exemplified. Unfortunately this was not something which appeared to be well understood by the majority of candidates despite Changing Places; Making Places being a compulsory topic.This candidate was confident in their ability to discuss and exemplify how climate change can affect informal representation. Examples from the response included; drought and floods and how this can be reported in the news, photos and their ability to change perception of future tourists thus affecting the economy. As well as examples such as google images, documentaries, e.g. those about melting ice caps as well as the differing political orientations of the various newspapers on sale. There was evidence in the candidate’s answer of clear and explicit attempts to make appropriate synoptic links. This resulted in well-developed ideas and thus a ‘comprehensive’ answer.This response was just below full marks, in order to achieve 12 marks the inclusion of positive impacts of climate change such as the example of vineyards in the UK would have balanced the answer.

(June 2019) Question 11 Examine how impacts of climate change can affect informational representations of place. (11 marks)
(June 2019) Question 12 To what extent are national and sub-national policies more effective than international responses to climate change? (33 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 27/33 (AO1 6 marks/AO2 21 marks) = A* grade (81.8%)

Climate change is a growing concern within the world today but with more and more people listening to the 97% of scientists who believe in climate change decisions have been made and introduced to tackle these problems. A range of organisations are involved in tackling these problems such as the United Nations Framework Convention against Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Intergovernmental Panel Against Climate Change (IPCC) and also smaller organisations on national scales such as the EU and individual countries.

There are a number of reasons why climate change is an issue to the world and why it is finally being tackled. Since the industrial revolution of Europe and the USA in the 19th century, there has been a sharp increase in CO2 emissions. Linked with the burning of fossil fuels such as coal, there is a lot of evidence to suggest this human caused increase and its link to increased global temperatures, such as the Keeling Curve and Michael Manns Hockey Stick diagram. These all show the effect humans have had. With increased CO2 in the atmosphere and increased temperatures caused by it there has been a number of devastating impacts such as extreme weather events, such as the 32 extreme weather events seen in the USA (including hurricane hurricane Katrina and many more), flooding in countries like Bangladesh (where 20 million people live in an area only 1m above sea level) and Australia and severe heatwaves (such as the 2003 heatwave in Europe which killed around 30,000 people, most elderly). For all these reasons international and national organisations are tackling the problem.

The UN is the leading fighter (international response) of climate change and has developed a number of legally binding treaties to try and cut CO2 emissions in order to reduce temperature before we reach a permanent change of 2ºC or higher, which could lead to irreversible consequences for our world. The Kyoto protocol was the first legally binding treaty set up in 1997 to try and reduce countries carbon emissions by 5% lower than industrial levels. This would cause a significant impact on CO2 emissions, however very few of the largest emitting countries ratified like USA, Russia, China or India. Despite China being the largest emitter of CO2 emissions they were still an EDC so were exempt from the treaty. The same applied to India with India stating they will not reduce CO2 emissions for another 20 years to give them time to develop and tackle poverty.

Without these 2 large emitters ratifying, little reduction globally would be made. The USA's argument not to ratify was that they saw no benefit in ratifying if not all countries were going to do so.

When Kyoto ended in 2012 and extended again from 2013-2020, high targets of 25% were put in place, meaning countries like Germany and Canada pulled out. Despite Kyoto still having a lot of countries ratified they only contributed to 14% of all the worlds CO2 emissions, making Kyoto a failure at improving international CO2 emissions.

Conference of the Parties (COP) are held every few years all over the world in order to discuss and manage climate change. The COP held in Paris in 2015 came up with some effective ideas such as the REDD+ scheme and the greenfund. The greenfund was the idea that ACs would invest money into LIDCs that were most at risk from climate change hazards in order to help them manage the impacts, sadly this as well as the REDD+ scheme (where countries were paid not to deforest to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation) had little success as not all countries including the USA and China did not invest.

Despite their best efforts little success has come by international responses, making them very ineffective.

Having more success in tackling climate change on a smaller scale, have been national and subnational policies such as the EU and individual countries such as Denmark and even states such as California.

The EU is one of the biggest leaders in climate change and sets strict targets of 20% reduction by 3030 and 80% reduction of CO2 emissions by 2050. The EU has the largest cap and trade system in the world and encourages over 10,000 power stations and factories to take power stations and factories to take port. Each factory/station is allocated a certain amount of credits (emission per tonne) they are allowed to use if they go over their budget they can trade power stations in order to gain more. If they are unable to claim new credits they would get fined €100 per tonne over they've used. They are also named and shamed if they do go over. This trade system is very successful and has been adapted in places like Australia and California. However there has been some criticisms of many credits being handed out to begin with.

Individual countries have been effective at creating policies and targets that help tackle climate change. A good example of this is Denmark. Denmark is at risk from climate change due to their flat land that is less than 1m above sea level. They have successfully created policies to decrease emissions of CO2 by 80% by 2050, increase renewable energy and cut fuel out completely by the end of the century. As well as successful policies they also have good adaption techniques such as building sea walls and reservoirs and creating suitable effective sewage pipes. None of these policies were legally binding but Denmark still took the idea and tried to tackle climate change.

In conclusion international responses to climate change could be very successful and really help to tackle climate change, but without the agreement and cooperation of all countries, especially the USA, India, China and Russia, very little impact will be made. Therefore national and subnational policies are more effective than international response at tackling climate change, however these are too small and if any real difference is to be made then they need to happen on a global scale.

This question was the most popular from the climate change option. This candidate starts their essay with a secure introduction giving some background on why climate change is an issue as well as the agencies involved in reducing impact. There is thorough knowledge and understanding of how mass consumption of fossil fuels to enable a country to development is one of the catalysts to climate change. This is well exemplified with a range of impacts in named countries of the World.By setting the scene and following a clear structure this has enabled the candidate to sequence their points of discussion, something that can often lead to more authoritative evaluation throughout their answer. This is often indicative of a high level answer.The first example given is the approach of the UN and in particular the Kyoto Agreement. Again secure knowledge and understanding has been shown with clear description, facts and figures used to discuss the policy. What is especially good about this answer is that it evaluates throughout the paragraph. Firstly by discussing membership of the likes of India being exempt and how this impacted on the USAs decision not to ratify. This is then further backed up by a concluding sentence of the success of Kyoto. This is a fantastic example of evaluation as it is clear and therefore easy for examiners to recognise and credit. Equally it is comprehensive in its approach to answering the question.The candidate makes good use of the successes of Paris before approaching the second half of the question - national and sub national policies. This section is a little lesson convincing and there is some confusion over the use of Denmark and California as countries.Where this candidate could have improved is a more thorough explanation of methods employed by both Denmark and California to combat climate change. This would have provided the opportunity to analyse and compare the use of national/sub national and thus provided opportunity for a more comprehensive evaluation of the relative successes.The addition of these points would have led to a more detailed and substantiated analysis and evaluative that can provide a secure judgment through the conclusion. This could have enabled the candidate to achieve full marks.

(June 2019) Question 12 To what extent are national and sub-national policies more effective than international responses to climate change? (33 marks)
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(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig.1 in showing the relationship between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per person and total CO2 emissions for selected countries. (3 marks)

AO3 - 3 marks

3x1 for limitations of the data identified through critical questioning of the resource.

The scattergraph plots data for 10 countries across the development continuum. Possible limitations include:

  • CO2 emissions are the total for each country, not per person. The considerable contrasts in populations of the countries have quite an influence on the total emissions.
  • GDP is per person but is in US $ and so is a limited indicator of wealth due to factors such as currency fluctuations and the under-counting of informal and subsistence economic activities.
  • No units for GDP per capita.
  • The dates for the two variables are different - GDP 2015 and CO2 2014 - not comparing like with like.
  • The 10 selected countries may not be a sufficiently large enough sample to offer a meaningful representation of the relationship.
  • Absence of line of best fit makes it difficult to see the relationship (mention of the need for a statistical test in addition)
  • Factors such as climatic influences need to be taken into account as regards CO2 emissions
  • Accuracy and reliability of data e.g. LIDCs/EDCs/ACs

The figure was a scatter graph indicating the relationship between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per person and total CO2 emissions for selected countries. Limitations identified by candidates included that CO2 emissions were for the whole country and not per person so not directly comparable with the GDP data. The dates for the two sets of data were a year apart and the sample of just ten countries may not offer a secure indication of the relationship were two other common limitations. Too many candidates became caught up in the mechanics of the graph with comments about the labelling of the y axis being hard to read and even that the graph should be in colour. Few picked up on possible issues of reliability and accuracy of the data.

(June 2018) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig.1 in showing the relationship between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per person and total CO2 emissions for selected countries. (3 marks)
(June 2018) Question 1 (b) Explain two ways that natural forcing has driven climate change in the geological past (6 marks)

AO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of natural forcing processes and how they have driven climate change in the geological past could potentially include:

  • Plate tectonics + continental drift - as continents broke apart and moved so distribution of land and sea across the latitudes varied. Earth’s climate varied between greenhouse and icehouse
  • Ocean circulation - ocean currents vital component of global energy budget transferring heat from low to high latitudes. Continental drift can alter pattern of ocean currents e.g. closing of the gap between Pacific and Atlantic with formation of Panama isthmus
  • Natural changes in GHG - e.g. 50 million years ago CO2 at c. 1000 ppm; 3-5 million years ago CO2 at c. 400 ppm - causes considered to be creating of large-scale fold mt systems e.g. Himalayas which increased chemical weathering removing vast amounts of CO2 from atmosphere
  • Milankovitch cycles - astronomical events e.g. changes in Earth’s axis + orbit + precession of equinoxes. Operate on timescales of 10,000 to 100,000 years. Credit tilt and orbit eccentricity separately
  • Volcanic eruptions - tend to affect shorter-term climate change
  • Solar output - sunspots used as a proxy

There some very effective explanations of how natural forcings have driven climate change in the geological past. Detailed and authoritative accounts of the operation and outcome of Milankovitch cycles and continental drift were not uncommon with many also explaining the link between volcanic activity and climate change. The question was explicit in its focus on change ‘...in the geological past.’ While some credit was given for references to major eruptions such as Pinatubo, the more convincing responses quoted major eruptions in the geological past such as the fissure eruptions responsible for lava plateaus such as the Deccan. Less effective responses tended to become caught up with the causes of the forcing rather than its effects.

(June 2018) Question 1 (b) Explain two ways that natural forcing has driven climate change in the geological past (6 marks)
(June 2018) Question 6 Examine how climate change can affect weathering and erosion processes within any one landscape system you have studied. (12 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of climate change and weathering and erosion processes could potentially include:

  • Evidence of how climate has changed e.g. warming of past two hundred years; changes to precipitation patterns in previous pluvial periods affecting drylands; longer term climate changes affecting landscapes; rising levels relevant
  • Specific points will depend on the landscape system studied by the candidate, coastal, glaciated or dryland - only one is studied
  • Weathering processes such as mechanical, chemical + biological
  • Erosional processes e.g. abrasion, attrition, hydraulic action

AO2 - 6 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse how climate change can affect weathering and erosion processes could potentially include:

  • Some points will depend on the landscape system studied by the candidate, coastal, glaciated or dryland - only one is studied
  • Weathering processes (chemical, physical + biological) likely to be more active due to higher temperatures
  • Erosional processes likely to be more active due to higher temperatures e.g. increased meltwater at glacier base leads to higher ice velocities; increased atmospheric energy leads to stronger winds giving greater wave energy to erode coastlines and more aeolian energy for corrosion/attrition/deflation in dryland landscapes→ generate more material available to be transported as well as transporting more material themselves
  • Regions becoming drier as a result of climate change likely to experience reduction in chemical weathering and less water erosion for example. However, with reduction in vegetation cover, fluvial erosion might increase
  • Changes to the levels and types of precipitation affecting erosion such as river action in glaciated and dryland regions
  • Increase in temperatures extend area affected by periglacial process as glaciers and ice sheets retreat;

Candidates were asked to examine how climate change can affect weathering and erosion processes in any one of the landscape systems. For some the distinction between the two groups of processes was muddled which tended to lead to confused links made between climate change and the processes. Many responses were simply too generalised to be convincing with vague assertion about sea level rise leading to increased erosion of cliffs. Those candidates who were authoritative regarding processes and made clear links between for example rising temperatures of both atmosphere and sea surface and weathering processes, or between rising temperatures, increased quantities of water and ice movements, soon had their responses climbing to the top of Level 3 at least. Overall, it was the weakness in knowledge and understanding of landscape processes that held back many candidates.

(June 2018) Question 6 Examine how climate change can affect weathering and erosion processes within any one landscape system you have studied. (12 marks)
(June 2018) Question 11 ‘To what extent is the debate over climate change influenced by a variety of agendas.’ Discuss. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of the climate change debate could potentially include:

  • A brief outline of the global warming debate.
  • Scientific consensus on climate change.
  • Evolution of a debate over time.
  • A range of stakeholders hold views on climate change: governments, international organisations (UN), official bodies (IPCC), NGOs, media, energy industries, the public.

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which the debate over climate change is driven by self-interests of different groups could potentially include:

  • Climate change is a global issue requiring a co- ordinated response which can cause individual countries to protect their position.
  • UN and EU have taken a prominent role but views may be dominated by the most powerful member states e.g. US, China, Germany and their own self-interest.
  • Global consensus is difficult to meet - Kyoto Protocol was never ratified by the US and China; Japan and Russia withdrew from the second commitment period.
  • Individual countries protect their position on energy security and industrial development.
  • National governments have a range of positions when approaching debate; India and China as industrial super powers, scepticism of countries such as the US.
  • Countries produce their own climate change laws that may not reflect the global consensus.
  • View by emerging economies and low income countries that the advanced nations have created the problem and should therefore bear the cost. And concern that reducing GGE will reduce their ability to develop.
  • Political leanings of the media.
  • The view of energy industries with a financial interest in the debate. Many are based in emerging nations eg Mexico, Nigeria.
  • View of nations and industries with a high dependency on the livestock sector will have a protectionist viewpoint.
  • Delivering clean air technology and alternative energy supplies requires a level of investment that EDCs and LIDCs may not have.
  • View that the public are more driven to action if they understand how climate change will affect them - the self-interest argument.

Candidates were asked to assess the extent to which the debate over climate change is influenced by a variety of agendas. A wide range in the quality of discussion was read by assessors. The more convincing essays recognised and were confident in outlining different agendas as exemplified by stakeholders such as supra-national bodies (UN; EU), international organisations (IPCC; WHO), individual nations and the media and a wide variety of groups such as Greenpeace, NASA, university research groups and individuals and local groups such as wildlife trusts.The different perspectives amongst nation states was recognised by many with the more convincing candidates being familiar with contemporary events such as the Paris accord and the USA’s recent withdrawal. The views of countries such as China and India were often cited but not often with sufficient detail to be really authoritative. While generalisations about examples such as the USA have some validity when based on the pronouncements of the current President, only a minority of candidates were able to nuance the discussion with material on the differing attitudes of states such as California and individual businesses.The role of the media was offered as being significant but too few linked this with important aspects such as the need to consider the perspectives of those owning elements of the media. The nature of scientific research, the independence of academic researchers and the scientific illiteracy of both media and the majority of people were relevant points but too few included them.

(June 2018) Question 11 ‘To what extent is the debate over climate change influenced by a variety of agendas.’ Discuss. (33 marks)
(June 2018) Question 12 ‘A country’s decisions on mitigation strategies to cope with climate change are mainly influenced by economic factors.’ How far do you agree with this statement? (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of the economic factors that influence decisions on mitigation could potentially include:

  • Mitigation strategies aim to reduce GHG emissions and tackle the causes of climate change. These tend to be long term approaches. Mitigation strategies range from the ratification of international treaties and agreements to specific practices within a country, for example energy efficiency and conservation.

Economic factors influencing decision could include:

  • Cost of new technology- carbon capture, geo-engineering, sequestration technology
  • Economic needs of different land use e.g. plantation agriculture for export crops
  • Cost of the introduction of new farming practices which improve productivity and reduce negative impacts of farming such as deforestation.
  • Cost of infrastructure improvements for more environmentally friendly road and air travel.
  • Economic cost of improved energy efficiency and the development of alternative fuels e.g. renewable technology
  • View by EDCs and LIDCs that ACs have created the problem and should therefore bear the cost
  • Concern of EDCs and LIDCs that reducing GGE will reduce their ability to develop.

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate whether decisions on mitigation strategies are influenced by economic factors more than other factors could potentially include:

Multiple factors can influence a county’s decision to adopt specific mitigation strategies:

  • Adaptation strategies aim to offer greater protection to those people and environments already facing risks from climate change, for example hard engineering. Mitigation and adaptation are complimentary.
  • Economic factors are important however, a range of technological, social, political and environmental factors will also be a consideration.
  • Environmental concerns relating to the level of impact within countries.
  • Social factors such as public engagement
  • The level of expertise and training in specialist fields
  • The political will of the government.
  • Social acceptance - countries vary in willingness to engage with costly schemes.
  • Cost benefit analysis by individual countries - if a country faces modest negative impacts of climate change the cost of implementing mitigation strategies may outweigh their benefits.
  • Adoption of mitigation strategies may vary with the degree to which a government sees its country as part of the cause, an AC will be more accountable in this respect than an LIDC potentially.
  • Emission targets are debated at a global level and level of economic development is not the only driving factor in these complex discussions.
  • Political commitment and willingness to engage in climate change mitigation must be balanced against a range of immediate domestic concerns. For example, individual countries may need a focus of resources on e.g. water supply, food production, industrial development and job creation, tackling poverty, disease and ill health.
  • The specification requires case study knowledge of the technological, socio-economic and political challenges associated with effective mitigation facing countries and this should form exemplification within this essay.

The vast majority of candidates selecting to answer in this Option discussed the influence of economic factors on decisions about mitigation strategies to cope with climate change. One issue assessors found in many discussions was a confusion in the minds of candidates between mitigation and adaptation. The former was only well understood by a minority of candidates who included discussion of strategies such as ratification of protocols (Kyoto, Paris), energy conservation measures and energy shifts, such as from fossil fuels to renewables. Convincing arguments were made as to the need for a strong domestic economy before cheap sources of carbon releasing energy are readily abandoned. That said, both India and China are investing in renewable energy production and afforestation projects can be found amongst EDCs and LIDCs. There was a disappointing absence of assessment of strategies such as carbon capture, tidal power and developments such as electric vehicles.Much was made in a good number of discussions of the argument that many EDCs and LIDCs perceive the current level of global warming as being directly the responsibility of the ACs. The carbon emissions from ACs of the past couple of hundred years have led to the climate change being experienced today and so it is these countries that must bear most of the costs.It was encouraging to read effective arguments put forward as to the economic rationale of EDCs and LIDCs in focusing on adaptive strategies. In this context, the efforts of Bangladesh in protecting itself from the threats of rising water levels from the ocean and river floods were often highlighted. Some of the most convincing essays went further to point out that carbon production per capita in LIDCs such as Bangladesh, was many times lower than even the lowest ranked AC. Fully evaluative essays included consideration of the socio-economic and political factors influencing attitudes towards climate change.

(June 2018) Question 12 ‘A country’s decisions on mitigation strategies to cope with climate change are mainly influenced by economic factors.’ How far do you agree with this statement? (33 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 1 as a source of information about greenhouse and icehouse conditions. (3 marks)

AO3 - 3 marks

3x1 for limitations of the data identified through critical questioning of the resource.

The table shows geological periods and ice ages. Possible limitations include:

  • No time scale for either Periods or Ice Ages
    • The estimated length of each Period / Ice Age is not given
    • Periods / Ice Ages appear to be the same length - misleading
  • Only selected Ice Ages included
  • Greenhouse periods not indicated - assumed by default - not ice age
  • Details of icehouse or greenhouse not given - no indication of spatial extent or severity
  • Periods and Ice Ages relate to N.America (Huronian) and S.Africa (Karoo) - Europe not represented

The figure was a table showing geological periods and ice ages. Most candidates identified the absence of any time scale as a limitation along with the incomplete nature of the table as regards icehouse and greenhouse conditions previously existing. Other limitations commonly offered concerned the severity and spatial extent of icehouse and / or greenhouse conditions.

(June 2019) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 1 as a source of information about greenhouse and icehouse conditions. (3 marks)
(June 2019) Question 1 (b) Explain methods used to reconstruct past climate. (6 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Two methods well explained can reach L3. More methods but in less detail can reach L3.

Knowledge and understanding of methods used to reconstruct past climate could potentially include:

  • Sea floor sediments - foraminifera builds up on the sea-floor within deposited sediments, the chemical composition of their shells indicates the temperature of the ocean when they were formed
  • Lake sediments - pollen deposited in sediments indicates vegetation type and paleoclimatic conditions; shells of diatoms reveal lake temperatures when they were formed; varves illustrate the conditions at the time of deposition e.g. dark layers are fine sediment in winter months whereas the lighter layers are coarse sediment (presence of meltwater) in spring/summer months
  • Ice cores - contain small bubbles of air which records gaseous composition of the atmosphere which give information on climatic conditions at the time the ice was formed
  • Tree rings - dendrochronology measures the width of annules each year (affected by moisture and / or temperature); the larger the sample of trees the greater the reliability, however some species more reliable than others e.g. oak compared with alder or pine which can miss years or have two growth rings in one year
  • Fossils - coral reefs are very sensitive to temperature, sunlight and water depth so fossil corals indicate the conditions when laid down in the past; some species e.g. herbivorous dinosaurs only survived in sub-tropical habits so their fossils indicate existence of those conditions
  • Spatial extent of glaciers / ice sheets in the past
  • Historical records e.g. crop prices; written documents e.g. diaries + paintings

The majority of responses offered ice core examination as one method. Those able to explain the analysis of gases released from the ice as indicating climate changes were convincing. Evidence from pollen analysis and fossils were also often quoted. Many candidates chose tree ring analysis as a method with the majority able to explain the relationship between width of tree ring and climate change as Exemplar 2 highlights. This candidate displays thorough knowledge and understanding of how tree ring analysis can aid in the reconstruction of past climates.Examiners were especially pleased to come across candidates who recognised that different methods offered insights into different time scales of climate change, ice cores hundreds of thousands of years, tree rings shorter timescales measured in hundreds of years.

(June 2019) Question 1 (b) Explain methods used to reconstruct past climate. (6 marks)
(June 2019) Question 6 Examine how impacts of climate change can affect informal representations of place. (12 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of impacts of climate change and informal representations of place could potentially include:

  • Any impact of climate change is relevant, although candidates will probably focus on impacts e.g. rise in temperatures leading to alteration of flood events both in pattern and intensity, change in precipitation patterns leading to arid conditions, shrinking glaciers, coral bleaching, ecosystem change, new diseases, droughts, desertification etc
  • Informal representations of place can be through a wide variety of media/sources e.g. film, television, music, art, photography, literature, graffiti, blogs, social media
  • Candidates may use examples at a variety of scales from a town through to a place such as the Arctic.

AO2 - 6 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse how impacts of climate change can affect informal representations of place could potentially include:

  • Candidates may focus on one place alone, or a variety of places.
  • There is a very wide variety of material candidates might use
    • Television e.g. Norwegian political drama Occupied where oil interests prevent climate action in Russia; American sci-fi drama Incorporated depicts Miami ravaged by climate change
    • Film e.g. Day After Tomorrow with its images of New York under enormous snow drifts; Before the Flood/An Inconvenient Truth/Chasing Ice documentary film examples are acceptable, Waterworld depicting a flooded earth after polar ice caps have melted
    • Music e.g. Erik Ian Walker’s Climate within Climate Music Project using music and displays to educate about the earth; UN’s Love Song to Earth, Joni Michell’s Big Yellow Taxi, Michael Jackson’s Earth Song, Daniel Crawford’s Planetary Bands, Warming World
    • Art e.g. Olafur Eliasson’s Your Waste of Time, John Sabraw’s Toxic Sludge, Naziha Mestaoui’s One Beat, One Tree, Paulo Grangeon’s Pandas on Tour
    • Photography-vastrangeincluding images taken by candidates and published by news agencies
    • Literature e.g. McCarthy’s The Road, Margaret Atwood’s The Year of the Flood, Lloyd’s The Carbon Diaries 2015, McEwan’s Solar, Kingsolver’s Flight Behaviour
    • Graffiti and blogs - candidate might have carried out some fieldwork in their local vicinity
  • Candidates may make reference to the media debate on climate change to demonstrate how impacts of climate change can affect informal representations of place e.g. Attenborough. They may discuss how reporting on impacts of climate change by news agencies has affected informal representations of a particular place through this debate.
  • Climate activism e.g. Extinction Rebellion, Friday lunch time demonstrations (school/college); Greta Thunberg media exposure

A key influence on the quality of answers was the degree to which a candidate understood what informal representations of place meant. Given this is an important element in the content of the compulsory Changing Spaces; Making Places topic, examiners were disappointed to encounter significant numbers of answers where this understanding was limited.Any impact of climate change was relevant with coastal flooding, temperature rise and ecosystem change frequently discussed. There was, however, a very restricted coverage of the diversity of possible informal representations. Media images of coastal flooding such as in Bangladesh, wild fires in California or coral bleaching on the Great Barrier Reef were commonly cited. Candidates also mentioned how perceptions are altering with pictures of positive impacts of climate change such as vineyards in the United Kingdom.

(June 2019) Question 6 Examine how impacts of climate change can affect informal representations of place. (12 marks)
(June 2019) Question 11 ‘Predicting what the future will hold for the carbon cycle is essential when responding to climate change.’ Discuss. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding the importance of carbon cycle for climate modelling and predicting climate change in the future could potentially include:

  • Carbon emissions
  • CO2 is the second most important greenhouse gas after water vapour
  • Carbon cycle, its climatic impact
  • Positive and negative feedback in the carbon cycle
  • Climate modelling
  • IPCC predictions
  • future scenarios including a range of inter-related factors that are not all directly linked to the carbon cycle

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate whether predicting what the future will hold for the carbon cycle is essential when responding to climate change could potentially include:

  • Discussion of the global carbon cycle, future predictions and response to climate change could be explored at a range of scales ie global, national and local (grassroots initiatives)
  • Predicting the future may not be as easy as we think
    • Relative importance of all inter-related factors that affect climate change from CO2 to cloud cover
    • Implications of future scenarios based on the carbon cycle lead to decisions managing response
    • Level of understanding of inter-relating factors varies so reliability of predictions may be debatable
  • Climate is global
  • Responses to climate change that focus on the carbon cycle may be international or national including the ideas below;
  • Reducing energy use which would reduce GHGs.
    • National - UK bringing in regulations on EPCs in 2008, offering incentives for improving EPCs because domestic demand accounts for 1/3 of primary energy consumption
    • EU Renewable Energy Directive forced UK to work towards 15% increase in renewable sources of energy leading to e.g. closure of several coal-fired power stations e.g. Ferrybridge 0215, Eggborough 2016
    • Australia bound by Copenhagen 2013 to cap-and-trade scheme and targets for increased energy consumption from renewable sources
  • Restoring carbon in long-term storage e.g. carbon capture and storage is expensive but feasible - it offsets 80% of carbon pollution from power stations, however it is limited to areas with suitable geology e.g. porous rocks beneath impermeable strata and expense e.g. Drax project cut in 2016, pilot project only in Peterhead UK
  • Protecting tropical forests from deforestation to maintain carbon reservoir - UNREDD programme
  • Geoengineering techniques e.g. fertilising oceans with iron to stimulate phytoplankton growth & increase photosynthesis (more CO2 absorbed), enhanced weathering or increasing CO2 capture using artificial trees made from a plastic resin

This question was less frequently seen by examiners of the two in the Option. It was disappointing that too few candidates were secure in their knowledge and understanding of the carbon cycle. In particular, the important distinction between the fast and slow carbon cycles was rarely discussed. The more convincing discussions made authoritative use of terms such as ‘flux’, ‘sink’ and ‘sequester’ as well as employing ideas such as feedback to highlight the relationship between the carbon cycle and climate change.Candidates tended to focus more on the responses to climate change they were aware of and did not link these clearly enough to the carbon cycle. A minority of candidates saw this question as an opportunity to ‘write all they could remember’ of mitigation and adaptation strategies. Measures such as those aimed at reducing carbon emissions were well known such as various international agreements (Kyoto, Copenhagen, Paris), cap and trade schemes and replacement of fossil fuel energy generation by renewables. Geoengineering, such as artificial plants absorbing CO2 and fertilising oceans to stimulate phytoplankton growth were mentioned by some but hardly ever linked explicitly with the carbon cycle.A very few considered the effectiveness of predictions such as the need to make assumptions and simplify both natural processes and human actions when modelling in order to predict. In this context comments about the level of detail required were rarely included. The role of chance was not well known but comments about the ‘rights’ of LIDCs and EDCs to improve the lives of their populations which is likely to involve increased energy demand were included by a good number. It was interesting to read comments about just how complex and dynamic the carbon cycle is which makes predictions so challenging.

(June 2019) Question 11 ‘Predicting what the future will hold for the carbon cycle is essential when responding to climate change.’ Discuss. (33 marks)
(June 2019) Question 12 To what extent are national and sub-national policies more effective than international responses to climate change? (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of international, national and sub-national responses to climate change could potentially include:

  • Role of the IPCC
    • Created by the UN & WMO to provide objective scientific and transparent reports on climate change which are neutral and non-binding
  • International directives
    • The Kyoto Protocol 1997 first legally binding international agreement responding to climate change.
    • Most countries achieved the 5% target set, however 12 failed to achieve their targets.
  • Carbon trading and credits schemes
    • EU ETS is the most successful scheme. It operates over 31 countries and involves 11,000 heavy energy-using installations and airlines. The scheme accounts for 45% of EU GHG emissions.
  • National policiesThese are wide ranging in scope and content. E.g. Denmark
    • Committed to 100% renewable energy by 2050 through wind & solar power, carbon taxes, tax relief for hydrogen & electric cars, subsidised public transport, cycling and management of methane in agriculture
    • Adaptation policies have also been created with ‘climate-proof neighbourhoods’, improvements to the Copenhagen’s drainage system, raised dykes & storm barriers
  • Subnational policies e.g. California, USA recognised as world leader. State wide legislation in 2006 towards clean energy, cap- and-trade system, promoting renewable energies

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which national and sub-national policies are more effective in responding to climate change than international responses could potentially include:

  • Limitations of sub-national policies: smaller political force, smaller population, smaller impact, although potentially fewer political obstacles
  • Benefits of sub-national policies: policing change often easier, policy appropriate to geography and population in that area so more targeted and more successful, potentially faster process from conception to implementation
  • Limitations of national policies: contrasts within country may limit success e.g. rural/urban or core/periphery divides, smaller impact than international policies
  • Benefits of national policies: single government, less complicated political system, faster implementation, policy can be more targeted for geography/culture/development than international options
  • The UN climate conference in Paris 2015 used the most recent IPCC report to discuss a legally binding universal international agreement which 174 countries had ratified by 2017, and 197 signed. In this instance it is difficult to say which is the most effective; the report or the conference bringing countries together and encouraging ratification - without the report, would the international directive have become legally binding? Without the ratification by nations there is limited success as was seen with Kyoto Protocol 1997 and the USA, Russia, China, Japan and India who are not party to that agreement.
  • The Kyoto Protocol was informed by the SAR (Second Assessment Report) 1996 from IPCC, indicating that they are mutually dependent and mutually effective, however there has not been international directives following all of the five reports
  • IPCC involves range of scientific opinion and strives towards a non-bias and consensus across the scientific community - this in itself could be argued to be the most effective of geopolitical methods as one united voice is a much stronger political force which has led to international directives and subsequent national policy
  • The Kyoto Protocol was ineffective in a number of ways; firstly EDCs and LIDCs were exempt particularly China & India (prioritised economic development over climate mitigation), secondly one third of ACs failed to reach their targets, thirdly the USA failed to ratify the agreement and as one of the largest contributors this caused a significant amount of controversy
  • EU has pioneered this with the world’s largest trading scheme however many argue the targets are not rigorous and are too easy for nation states to meet. 2020 targets were met by a number of nations in 2011, in comparison some member states have been very slow to implement directives. The UK increased renewable energy output by 90% in 4 years in response to the Renewables Directive

This was by far the more popular of the two questions in this Option. Candidates were generally secure in their knowledge of international responses to climate change. Kyoto and Paris were frequently mentioned with varying degrees of authority as regards their details. The setting of targets as regards carbon emissions linked to restricting temperature rise was mentioned by most. It was encouraging that the majority were able to describe the aims of the various protocols and to assess their relative effectiveness in terms of compliance or otherwise by various nation states. If there was a weakness it was that too much was made of Kyoto in contrast to the Paris Conference of 2015 given that this more recent agreement has superseded Kyoto in terms of international policies. The weaker responses barely, if at all mentioned Paris. That said, the inherent flaws in Kyoto were well used in many of the more convincing discussions. The tensions evident at the international scale were also well outlined among the upper quartile candidates. Less convincing discussions tended to rely on simply stating that President Trump did not believe in global warming and so had pulled the USA out of the agreement signed at Paris. The other international scale policy mentioned frequently was that of the EU. The EU’s emissions trading system (EUETS) was assessed with candidates pointing out the benefits of a smaller group of countries working together especially given that inevitably they are located close by each other and so share similar issues.National policies were most often set in the context of ACs such as Denmark, the UK or Germany. There were detailed descriptions of national policies such as Denmark’s aim to move to zero-emission cars by 2035, reducing methane emissions from agriculture and reduction in the use of oil and gas for heating.Sub-nationally was quite often ignored in the weaker answers but was a feature of the stronger ones. The examples most cited were those of California and Copenhagen. Cap and trade, promotion of renewable technologies, climate proof neighbourhoods were mentioned as being positive steps taken by communities.Evaluation of the national and sub-national scales tended to suggest that it can be a more straightforward task to arrive at a policy covering smaller spatial areas and that co-ordinating implementation and policing is easier. It was a feature of the more sophisticated discussions that the symbolic value of large scale international accord has value and that while the handful of countries responsible for a disproportionately large share may not fully agree, the fact that global warming is just that, global, means that international policies are significant.

(June 2019) Question 12 To what extent are national and sub-national policies more effective than international responses to climate change? (33 marks)
(November 2020) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 1 as a source of information about shrinking ice as a result of climate change. (3 marks)

AO3 - 3 marks

3x1 for limitations of the data identified through critical questioning of the resource.

The photograph shows the meltwaters and a distant glimpse of the Franz Josef glacier, New Zealand. Possible limitations include:

  • No evidence on rate of change i.e. no early photo to compare
  • Reasons for melting of ice/shrinking of glacier not clear e.g. temperature data
  • No clear evidence of scale e.g. scale of glacier and valley which can inform comments regarding rate of change
  • Franz Josef is just one glacier and not necessarily representative of all
  • Who produced the source - bias / purpose of photo
  • Time of year photo taken - seasonal change to extent of ice

Most candidates were able to identify two or three limitations of the resources in the two Options they had studied.The limitations of a qualitative resource such as the photograph used in the Climate Change option or the sketch of an earthquake proof building in the Hazardous Earth option were well known by most. The absence of any information to compare the photograph with so as to gain an insight into glacial retreat was a common theme. The absence of any labelling or additional information regarding construction materials or the purpose of elements of the design of the building were commonplace limitations raised.Candidates were also secure in their appraisal of data presentation such as the column graph used in Disease Dilemmas. Comments about the need for actual numbers, the lack of data on the actual incidence of the cancer in the population and the need for data on distribution of cancers both spatially and socio-economically were common.

(November 2020) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 1 as a source of information about shrinking ice as a result of climate change. (3 marks)
(November 2020) Question 1 (b) Explain the role and possible bias of the media in shaping the public image of climate change. (6 marks)

AO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the role and possible bias of the media in shaping the public image of climate change could potentially include:

  • Role
    • Crucial role in forming public opinion as many do not read scientific papers, reports, blogs + specialist websites.
    • Social media growing in popularity as source of information/opinion.
  • Bias
    • Simplistic and sensational reporting in some media.
    • Social media in particular is unregulated allowing unsubstantial claims to be made.
    • Not necessarily representative of scientific research - overhwelming majority of scientific research supports idea of anthropogenic climate change - false balance by giving equal weighting to dissenting views - increasing appearance of controversy.
    • Political leanings of the media organisation will slant the content, e.g. right leaning publications are more sceptical than left and their differences make the issue appear more contentious than it is.
    • Some of the strongest opinions are from large wealthy companies (with media influence) seeking to protect profits from extraction and the use of fossil fuels by opposing climate change evidence.
    • Role and bias to be considered for bottom of L2+.

The key aspect of these questions is that the command word ‘Explain’ should be the focus in candidate responses. Candidates can become side-tracked into offering quite full descriptions that while displaying effective knowledge, nevertheless, restrict themselves to Level 1 as they offer no understanding. Two examples highlight this issue.The features of shallow focus earthquakes were known by the majority but it was their explanation that was required. That they can cause relatively high levels of damage at the surface despite comparatively low magnitude is because the energy affects only a small area compared to deep focus ‘quakes’.The relationship between cultural factors and disease tended to be securely answered by the majority of candidates. The role of cultural causes such as levels of smoking and or drinking linked with cancers or the consumption of unhealthy foods and low levels of physical activity linked with diabetes and cardiovascular disease (CVD) were examples where candidates offered ‘reasonable’ (Level 2) or in the majority of cases ‘thorough’ (Level 3) knowledge and understanding.

(November 2020) Question 1 (b) Explain the role and possible bias of the media in shaping the public image of climate change. (6 marks)
(November 2020) Question 6 Assess how responses to climate change are affected by issues of either human rights or territorial integrity. (12 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of responses to climate change and issues of either human rights or territorial integrity could potentially include:

Responses to climate change could include:

  • Work of the IPCC, international directives (e.g. Kyoto protocol), EU climate directives all depend on co-operation at all scales for success
  • Carbon trading and carbon credits
  • National and sub-national policies
  • There are a range of methods at a range of scales

Issues of human rights

  • How human rights are promoted and protected by global governance e.g. treaties, laws, institutions, norms
  • Contributions and interactions of global governance of different organisations (UN/national government/NGO) at a range of scales
  • How global governance of human rights has consequences for citizens and places both positive and negative

OR - Issues of territorial integrity

  • How access to resources can cause territorial conflict
  • Role of institutions, treaties, laws and norms in regulating conflict
  • Interventions and interactions of organisations at a range of scales
  • Consequences for local communities (both positive and negative)

AO2 - 6 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse how responses to climate change are affected by issues of either human rights or territorial integrity could potentially include:5

  • Where human rights or territorial integrity are stable, the international responses to climate change are likely to be stable, experience greater success and uniformity e.g. ACs and some EDCs
  • A wide range of examples could be used, at a variety of different scales. Although question specifies international responses, these could be exemplified at a national or sub-national scale (e.g. Scottish v. UK emission targets)
  • International responses could have varying rates of success e.g. less unified response, if any, to climate change where human rights (China/India exemption from Kyoto), or territorial integrity under dispute (eg Azawad, Tuareg Mali, where instability has led to UN involvement, but not related to responses to climate change),
  • Role of other organisations such as World bank and Oxfam.
  • A country’s right to development - some don’t sign up to initiatives as they believe it is their right to economic prosperity.
  • Response to climate change can be about the rights of citizens to be free from issues associated with it
  • Countries experiencing human rights abuses can be more prone to suffering the consequences of climate change.
  • Many are of the belief that ACs should pay LIDCs to protect the environment and mitigate against climate change.

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(November 2020) Question 6 Assess how responses to climate change are affected by issues of either human rights or territorial integrity. (12 marks)
(November 2020) Question 11 ‘Changes in anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions since the pre-industrial era reflect economic development at a national scale.’ Discuss (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of changes in anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions since the pre-industrial era and economic development at a national scale could potentially include:

  • Definition/examples of ‘anthropogenic’ gas emissions
  • The balance of anthropogenic emissions around the world and how this has changed in recent history
  • How anthropogenic emissions influence the global mean energy budget
  • Example(s) of economic development at national scale

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which changes in anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions since the pre-industrial era reflect economic development at a national scale could potentially include:

  • Evaluation of different greenhouse gases and their variations in contributions and their contributions to global warming e.g. carbon dioxide increased significantly since 1960, related to changes in ACs in particular, although mix changing. Note China and India despite large contribution to global emissions have relatively low emissions per capita
  • Depending on case studies used comments relating to population growth, land-use changes and energy demand and mix as well as other principal activities responsible for greenhouse gas emissions
  • Contribution of f actors responsible for changes in emissions over time and space other than economic development e.g. response to international protocols, new technologies, political pressure etc
  • Predictionoffuturetrendsalsoapplicableand may indicate higher level answer
  • Reasons GHGs cab increase as a result of industrialisation (demand for energy, technological advances, transport and manufacturing, population growth, land use change).
  • Reference to current situation and countries currently reducing GHG emissions
  • Higher level answer likely to include discussion about international protocol and political pressure

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(November 2020) Question 11 ‘Changes in anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions since the pre-industrial era reflect economic development at a national scale.’ Discuss (33 marks)
(November 2020) Question 12 Assess the success of adaptation strategies to reduce the vulnerability of human populations at risk from climate change. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of adaptation strategies reducing the vulnerability of human populations at risk from climate change could potentially include:

  • Definition/examples of adaption
  • Framework of adaption and its implementation in a range of communities e.g. retreat, accommodation and protection strategies
  • What future homes, offices, cities, transport and economies will look like following adaptation throughout the 21st century
  • Vulnerability - why people continue to live in areas prone to risk/ability to cope with risk. Two contrasting case studies to illustrate adaptation strategies and associated technological, socio-economic and political challenges associated with them

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the success of adaptation strategies to reduce the vulnerability of human populations at risk from climate change could potentially include:

  • Success may be judged in a number of different ways e.g. sustainability, cost benefit analysis, appropriate technology etc.
  • A wide range of case studies can be used to exemplify
  • Economic development can affect success of strategies e.g. managed retreat in UK, including land use zoning through shoreline management plans, has worked; however, in Bangladesh 140 million live on the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta unable to afford to move
  • Reducing deforestation in EDCs and LIDCs is a more sustainable soft option for reducing vulnerability to climate change (minimise floods, reduce soil erosion e.g. UN’s REDD scheme educating and paying local tribes to protect the rainforest); significantly cheaper than hard engineering structures such as steel and concrete structures on slopes or storm surge barriers in the Netherlands. Many challenges in the physical management of large areas as well as training/education needs for local communities to make the schemes successful
  • Some technological adaptations use simple technology and are environmentally friendly. Training/education needed. Examples rainwater harvesting, use of grey water, sunshades for windows, white walls and ceilings, green roofs etc
  • In Bangladesh protection of coastal mangroves forests, a priority. However, local communities motivated by economic gain, clearing the forest for agriculture and lucrative fish farming, limiting success of coastal protection measures
  • In Australia there is much more hard engineering protecting economic centres as well as land use planning to prevent building in flood prone areas, relocation of high value residential and business areas as well as dam projects to mitigate increasing drought.
  • The success of adaptation projects will be debated and the impacts on vulnerable populations explored to allow credit for evaluation
  • Evaluation of other methods of mitigating against climate change

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(November 2020) Question 12 Assess the success of adaptation strategies to reduce the vulnerability of human populations at risk from climate change. (33 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations with the data evidence in Fig. 1. (3 marks)

AO3 - 3 marks

3x1 for limitations of the data evidence identified through critical questioning of the resource.

  • The horizontal line showing an approximate 30 year mean (from 1961-1990) gives no indication for why this time period was chosen and the data doesn’t show any striking changes for this period.
  • The 10 year running mean shows a general pattern of increasing global surface temperatures however this doesn’t show yearly / annual variations which may give a more accurate picture for analysis.
  • The vertical arrow on the graph identified as ‘warmer than average’ is only compared to the 30 year mean surface temperature not to the whole period of data shown on the graph from 1880.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations with the data evidence in Fig. 1. (3 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (b) Explain how shrinking ice sheets show the world has warmed since the late-nineteenth century. (6 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of how shrinking ice sheets show the world has warmed could potentially include:

  • Green land (1.7 million km2) Antarctica (14 million km2) have major ice sheets which are experiencing losses due to: ablation, surface melt, calving at ocean interface, melting from ocean contact (significant warming since 1940s, mainly in top 300m)
  • Polar ice loss has led to 11.1mm of global sea level rise since 1992
  • Rising sea levels - present day melting of polar ice sheets adds approximately 1mm every year
  • European space agency monitoring (Cryo-sat 2), enhanced ice sheet monitoring from Nov 2010 to Sept 2013 and found the largest annual losses in Western Antarctica and the Admunsen Sea shows the largest signal of ice loss
  • Ice sheet loss not just about the world warming but the impact of this warming on oceans which are increasing in temperatures and ocean circulation is altering
  • Measuring ice sheet loss is much more recent than monitoring of global temperatures. Since late 19th century global surface temperature changes have been approx. 0.6 degrees.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (b) Explain how shrinking ice sheets show the world has warmed since the late-nineteenth century. (6 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 6 Examine how climate change may be impacting the carbon cycle in the Arctic tundra. (12 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of climate change and the carbon cycle in the Arctic tundra could potentially include:

  • Increase in surface and atmospheric temperatures
  • Increasing atmospheric water vapour
  • Climate modelling to show the importance of the carbon cycle
  • Carbon cycles have inputs, outputs and stores, refer to Arctic tundra
  • Physical factors affecting rates of flow and stores e.g. temperature, vegetation, organic matter in soil and mineral composition of rocks
  • Short term and long term changes in the carbon cycle (including seasonality)
  • Dynamic equilibrium in the cycle (balance between stores and flows).

AO2 - 6 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse how climate change may be impacting the carbon cycle in the Arctic tundra could potentially include:

  • Permafrost is a vast carbon sink, rising Arctic temperatures (above 0 degrees for part of the year) causes a decline in permafrost (decomposition). Processes that move permafrost carbon from frozen to thawed releases the stored carbon, increasing the carbon pool. This carbon can then be released into the atmosphere
  • In the Arctic the rate of decomposition is usually slow and limited mainly to the summer months, a warming climate encourages faster decomposition and the release of nutrients for plant growth
  • Rising temperatures increases the length of the growing season. There is increased photosynthesis so more atmospheric carbon dioxide is absorbed
  • Forest fires due to periods of drought can release a significant amount of carbon into the atmosphere. The forest fire destroys plants which can absorb carbon from the atmosphere
  • Ecosystems in the Arctic tundra are changing and potentially adapting to climate changes such as plant growing seasons, growth rates and species composition however this cannot compensate for the thawing permafrost.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 6 Examine how climate change may be impacting the carbon cycle in the Arctic tundra. (12 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 11 ‘The vulnerability of people to the impacts of climate change is mainly the result of economic factors.’ Discuss. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of the impacts of climate change in a variety of contexts could potentially include:

  • Rising sea levels e.g. effect on island communities such as Pacific or Indian Ocean islands; barrier beach communities along east coast of USA; delta dwelling communities such as in Bangladesh
  • Change in ecosystems e.g. savannah lands in Africa such as Kenya and its herding people experiencing greater variability in rainfall with the consequent effect on pasture growth; tropical rainforest dwellers in Amazon basin experiencing changed rainfall patterns
  • Impacts on human health e.g. more intense heat waves in western Europe / southern USA; invasion and spread of diseases and viruses e.g. malaria to currently unaffected areas such as southern Europe
  • Reductions in extent and thickness of sea ice e.g. in Arctic threatening traditional way of life of indigenous peoples such as Inuit
  • Increased intensity of storms e.g. impact of Typhoon Pam, Vanuatu.

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the influence of different factors which affect the vulnerability of people to the impacts of climate change, with economic factors as the focus, could potentially include:

  • ACs can afford coastal flood defences such as Netherlands Delta Plan and Thames flood barrier. LIDCs such as Bangladesh cannot
  • ACs can afford water supply management to cope with decreased precipitation and or increased variability such as Australia / S. California. LIDCs such as Mali cannot
  • ACs can afford technology to predict storms such as hurricanes or depressions and thereby reduce vulnerability and loss. LIDCs cannot
  • ACs have the resources to combat health risks. LIDCs do not
  • National programmes e.g. Malawi’s National Adaptation Programmes of Action (NAPA) e.g. afforestation of catchments
  • Many low cost schemes around the world reduce vulnerability of communities to impacts, such as basic cyclone and storm surge warnings in Bangladesh or improved communication of rainfall patterns in East Africa
  • Individual people of higher economic status can reduce their vulnerability as they can afford mitigation such as moving away from areas prone to coastal flooding
  • Even wealthy communities have a limit to their monetary power to deal with climate change e.g. not all coastlines can be defended even in the USA or UK
  • The relationship between economic factors and vulnerability which can apply at a variety of scales, e.g. national, community, individuals
  • The relationship between other factors (environmental, social, political) and vulnerability of people to climate change such as:
    • Effects of change in temperature and precipitation regimes on availability and access to food.
    • Dependence of a society on climate sensitive sectors such as agriculture, forestry and fisheries
    • Ability of societies to adapt to change e.g. in agricultural practices
    • Effectiveness of governments to respond to extreme weather or effects on human health.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 11 ‘The vulnerability of people to the impacts of climate change is mainly the result of economic factors.’ Discuss. (33 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 12 ‘Physical factors influence climate change more than human factors.’ Discuss. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Knowledge and understanding of physical and human factors that influence climate change could potentially include:

  • Physical / natural factors influencing climate change include tectonic events such as volcanic eruptions; cyclic changes in the earth’s orbit and axis / Milankovitch cycles; variation in sunspot activity / solar energy; role of El Niño / La Niña in context of extreme events
  • Human / anthropogenic factors influencing climate change include levels of CO2 directly linked to combustion of fossil fuels; increases in CH4 due to increasing numbers of livestock, increased acreage of rice padi; deforestation; and draining of wetlands
  • Long term dynamism e.g. gradual cooling over the past 100 million years - fossil records of changing distribution of pants and animals
  • Ice ages and interglacials of the past 2.5 million years - ice core evidence of CO2 and oxygen isotope concentrations
  • During our current interglacial i.e. the last 10,000 years, especially the last 1,000 years - tree rings and pollen sequences; historical records such as diaries, paintings, harvest records
  • Short-term recent changes e.g. last 150 years - instrumental records of air and ocean temperatures and changes in intensity and frequency of weather events such as tropical storms.

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate whether physical factors influence climate change more than human factors could potentially include:

  • Glacial and inter-glacial climatic changes which were natural events.
  • The greenhouse effect which is a natural occurrence but it has been enhanced especially after industrialisation in the 19th century
  • The effects of negative and positive feedback in the Earth-atmosphere system whereby the damaging effects of positive feedback may lead to a tipping point at which climate change becomes rapid and irreversible, and where negative feedback may lead to global dimming
  • Role of the IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) and other scientific organisations such as NOAA (National Oceanographic and Aeronautical Administration) in advancing knowledge and understanding of changes
  • The existence of a sceptical scientific point of view which includes arguments about accuracy of data, reliability of past data and places emphasis on natural processes such as variations in solar activity and frequency of volcanic eruptions
  • The role of political factors in the assessment of climate change such as the view from governments relying on fossil fuels to support development e.g. China, USA and Australia
  • Data from ice cores only go back so far in time; tree ring and pollen data is regional not global
  • Recording of data has improved e.g. quality of instruments such as thermometers, so how accurate and reliable are the data from the past.
(Sample assessment materials) Question 12 ‘Physical factors influence climate change more than human factors.’ Discuss. (33 marks)
(Student Guide) Question 12 Assess the relative effectiveness of adaptation strategies aimed at managing risks from climate change. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of adaptation strategies aimed at managing risks from climate change could potentially include:

Risks from climate change:

  • To people: flooding - death, injury; health risks from water borne disease, water shortages, altered distributions of vectors e.g. insects; extreme weather e.g. tropical storms, monsoon, heat waves
  • To environments: coastal damage from rising sea level increased wave energy;↑ river energy from ↑ precipitation; marine and terrestrial e.g. impacts on corals and tundra.

Adaptation strategies aimed at managing risk:

  • Coasts - managed re-alignment; abandonment; land-use zoning
  • Agriculture - types of crops grown → more drought resistant varieties; methods to conserve water e.g. zero tillage; crop rotation
  • Water supply and use - ↑ collection + storage of water; ↑ recycling grey water; ↑ efficiency of equipment e.g. washing machines
  • Protection - hard engineering e.g. storm surge barriers, dams; soft engineering e.g. mangrove + salt marsh growth; afforestation in upland catchments
  • Health measures e.g. ↑ air conditioning; mosquito nets: vaccines;

NB adaptation different from mitigation - adaptation is to reduce vulnerability of human populations at risk. Mitigation aims to lessen risks e.g. reducing GHG emissions with aim of restricting temperature rise.

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the relative effectiveness of adaptation strategies aimed at managing risks from climate change could potentially include:

Factors affecting the relative effectiveness of adaptation strategies in managing risks from climate change

  • Levels of vulnerability: vary person to person, family to family, community to community and nation to nation
  • Fundamental variation in vulnerability ACs EDCs → LIDCs (where vulnerability already an issue and likely to increase as 21st century progresses)
  • Greatest challenges are for people to acquire flexibility and resilience
  • Availability of resources e.g. EDCs likely to generate resources to largely cope however ACs possess most of the resources to cope
  • Political decision making at all scales
  • Extreme events capable of overwhelming any location
(Student Guide) Question 12 Assess the relative effectiveness of adaptation strategies aimed at managing risks from climate change. (33 marks)
A table summarising the Earth’s internal structure.

Click here to view the table

A table summarising the Earth’s internal structure.
A table showing Wegner’s evidence for continental drift.

Click here to view the table

A table showing Wegner’s evidence for continental drift.
What are convection currents?

They occur due to parts of the asthenosphere becoming very hot, rising and moving sideways when they reach the lithosphere. The hot material cools and sinks back down. Generated by radioactive decay in the core.

What are convection currents?
What is sea-floor spreading?

The lateral movement of new oceanic crust away from a mid-ocean ridge.

What is sea-floor spreading?
A table showing different types of spreading mid-oceanic ridges.

Click here to view the table

A table showing different types of spreading mid-oceanic ridges.
Define seismic.

This term means ‘of an earthquake’, as in seismic energy or seismic waves.

Define seismic.
What is a rift valley?

A linear valley formed by the sinking down of rocks between fractures or faults. The sides are often steep, the valley floor relatively flat.

What is a rift valley?
What are transform faults?

Large-scale features at right angles to a mid-oceanic ridge. They range in length from a few tens of kilometres to several hundred.

What are transform faults?
What is graben?

The downfaultedj section of a rift valley.

What is graben?
What is subduction?

Occurs where the oceanic crust sinks below either a continental or oceanic plate along a destructive boundary (convergent margin).

What is subduction?
What is an ocean trench?

A long, narrow depression, mostly between 6-11,000m deep. They are asymmetric in cross-profile, the steeper side on the continent side.

What is an ocean trench?
What is the Benioff zone?

The boundary between a subducting ocean plate and the overriding continental plate.

What is the Benioff zone?
Define viscosity.

An indication of how well a substance flows. Acid lavas have high viscosity and do not flow well.

Define viscosity.
A table showing the characteristics of explosive and effusive eruptions.

Click here to view the table

A table showing the characteristics of explosive and effusive eruptions.
What is a strato-volcano?

A steep-sided volcano made up of layers of ash and lava ejected during an explosive eruption. Also known as a composite cone.

What is a strato-volcano?
What is a caldera?

A large-scale (>2km diameter) volcanic crater formed as a result of an explosive eruption. The magma chamber was emptied, causing the volcano sides to subside. The Anak Krakatoa volcano/caldera has a diameter of 8km.

What is a caldera?
What is shield volcano?

A broad-based volcano with gently sloping sides. Formed from effusive eruptions of free-flowing basaltic lava.

What is shield volcano?
What is a sill?

A sill forms when magma intrudes between the rock layers, forming a horizontal or gently dipping sheet of igneous rock.

What is a sill?
What is dyke?

Forms as magma pushes up towards the surface through cracks in the rock. Dykes are vertical or steeply dipping sheets of igneous rock.

What is dyke?
What are flood basalts?

These are very large of basaltic lava erupted over many hundreds or thousands of years from multiple eruption events.

What are flood basalts?
What are hotspots?

Locations where magma from a particularly active area of the asthenosphere rises up and breaks through the crust. These eruptions are not associated with plate boundaries.

What are hotspots?
Name the 5 types of volcanic hazards.

Lava flows, pyroclastic flows, tephra, toxic gases and lahars.

Name the 5 types of volcanic hazards.
Explain the volcanic hazard of lava flows.

Basic (e.g. basalt) lava can run for long distances, several kilometres. Acidic lavas (e.g. rhyolite) are thick, rarely flowing far. Everything in the path of a flow will be destroyed, so the main hazards are to infrastructure, property and crops. Few injuries or fatalities result.

Explain the volcanic hazard of lava flows.
Explain the volcanic hazard of pyroclastic flows.

Hot gas (500ºC+), ash and rock fragments travelling at high speed (100km/h+) following the shape of the ground. Devastating to anything in their path. Pyroclastic flow from Mount Vesuvius overwhelmed Pompeii.

Explain the volcanic hazard of pyroclastic flows.
Explain the volcanic hazard of tephra.

Any material ejected from a volcano, ranging from fine ash to large volcanic bombs (>6cm across). Potentially very hazardous - ash causes breathing difficulties, smothers crops, collapses buildings through build-up on roofs (>30cm), and disrupts transport, ground and air.

Explain the volcanic hazard of tephra.
Explain the volcanic hazard of toxic gases.

Wide range of gases ejected during an eruption, e.g. carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide. Can cause death to living things and acid rain, which results in longer-term pollution of soils and water.

Explain the volcanic hazard of toxic gases.
Explain the volcanic hazard of lahars.

Mud flows often including larger rocks and boulders with the consistency of wet concrete. Can travel at speeds up to 50km/h. Destroy or bury everything in their path.

Explain the volcanic hazard of lahars.
Describe the four locations at which seismic activity is concentrated.
  1. Mid-ocean ridges - tension comes from sea-floor spreading.
  2. Ocean trenches and island arcs - compressive forces associated with subduction.
  3. Collision zones - compressive forces associated with grinding together of plates.
  4. Conservative plate margins - shearing forces associated with irregular movement of plates past each other.
Describe the four locations at which seismic activity is concentrated.
Name all 3 different seismic waves.

Primary (P), Secondary (S), Surface (L).

Name all 3 different seismic waves.
Explain primary (P) seismic waves.

These waves are fast travelling, compressional waves of low frequency. This means they vibrate in the direction they are traveling in at a fast speed but low frequency.

Explain primary (P) seismic waves.
Explain secondary (S) seismic waves.

These are transverse waves (vibrate at right angles to the direction of travel) that travel at half the speed of P waves but have a much higher frequency.

Explain secondary (S) seismic waves.
Explain surface (L) waves.

These are the slowest of all the 3 waves and are also low frequency like P waves. Some L waves move the ground at right angles to the direction of travel whereas others have a rolling movement that moves the surface vertically.

Explain surface (L) waves.
What are the most destructive seismic waves and why?

Surface waves (L-waves) are the most destructive as these are felt most intensely on the Earth’s surface and will therefore be responsible for buildings collapsing, damage to infrastructure and therefore have significant socio-economic effects, as well as environmental effects. However, in reality, it is a combination of all three which cause destruction to natural and built environments.

What are the most destructive seismic waves and why?
What is the focus?

The point at which the shock waves originate in an earthquake.

What is the focus?
What is the epicentre?

Location on the Earth’s surface immediately above an earthquake’s focus.

What is the epicentre?
Using a located example, explain one way in which human activity is increasing the risk of (low magnitude) earthquakes.

Source: (where did you find this article i.e. date and title and publication)

The Guardian, 20th October 2018, ‘Minor earthquakes detected near fracking site in Lancashire’

Event

Earthquakes of very low magnitude have been detected near a fracking site in Lancashire, indicating that human activity is triggering seismic events here.

Summary (include specific facts)

A series of low magnitude earthquakes were detected within close proximity to the energy firm Cuadrilla’s fracking site on Preston New Road near Blackpool in October 2018. 7 years earlier, in 2011, the site was shut down after a series of higher magnitude events, the highest reaching 2.3 on the Richter scale had been detected. However, the site reopened for operations in early October 2018 however only a few days after, The British Geological Survey released a statement saying they had detected a number of small earthquakes in the area. However, all the earthquakes detected since the site’s reopening were below the threshold of what is deemed to still be safe and operations could continue at. The highest recorded at the time was magnitude 0.3 however any quake exceeding 0.5, would see the site shut down once more. There were several protests at the site when the governments announced they had given the site permission to reopen as protestors emphasised that people could get hurt if a more major quake were triggered.

Using a located example, explain one way in which human activity is increasing the risk of (low magnitude) earthquakes.
Name the 3 measures of earthquake activity.

Richter scale, Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale, Moment Magnitude scale (Mw).

Name the 3 measures of earthquake activity.
Explain the Richter scale as a measure of earthquake activity.

Measures wave amplitude to assess the energy released when rocks fracture. It uses a logarithmic scale from 0.0 to just over 9.0, the largest earthquake yet recorded.

Explain the Richter scale as a measure of earthquake activity.
Explain the Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale as a measure of earthquake activity.

Quantifies what was felt by people and the type and scale of damage to buildings on a scale from I (not felt) to XII (total destruction). Very subjective.

Explain the Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale as a measure of earthquake activity.
Explain the Moment Magnitude scale (Mw) as a measure of earthquake activity.

Measures the amount of physical movement of the ground to assess the intensity of an earthquake. Most accurate.

The Moment magnitude scale is bad for measuring small earthquakes. For earthquakes below 3.5 Mw the system becomes inaccurate. This is because the system has trouble dealing with the high frequencies associated with smaller earthquakes.

Explain the Moment Magnitude scale (Mw) as a measure of earthquake activity.
Explain which measure of earthquake activity you think is the most effective. You must justify your decision.

In general, I think that the Moment Magnitude scale (Mw) is the most effective measure of seismic activity because it combines physical effects with seismic magnitude but is not subject to personal bias (subjectivity) like the Modified Mercalli Intensity scale. Furthermore, it is a more accurate measure of energy released than the Richter Scale, particularly for large earthquakes. However, the measurement used depends on the situation; for instance, the Richter scale would be most effective for measuring small earthquakes, whilst the Modified Mercalli scale is better for assessing the impacts of an earthquake on people and places.

Explain which measure of earthquake activity you think is the most effective. You must justify your decision.
What is a seismograph?

An instrument used to detect and record seismic waves.

What is a seismograph?
Name the 4 seismic (earthquake) hazards.

Ground shaking and ground displacement, liquefaction, landslides and avalanches, tsunamis.

Name the 4 seismic (earthquake) hazards.
Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of ground shaking and ground displacement.

This is the vertical and horizontal movement of the ground. How severe this is depends on:

  • earthquake magnitude
  • distance from the epicentre
  • local geology

Locations close to the epicentre of a high-magnitude earthquake receive the most serious impacts, especially if the local geology is made up of unconsolidated sediment (for example, in Mexico City (1985) and Kobe, Japan (1995)). Generally, it is horizontal movement that is the greatest threat to buildings - once a building starts to sway considerably, it can collapse and crash into neighbouring structures. Movement along a fault line can fracture pipelines and sewers, and break rigid structures such as railway tracks and roads.

Ground movement, such as rivers or stream being diverted, can disrupt natural drainage. The movement of underground water in aquifers can be altered. These changes have implications for water supply and irrigation.

Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of ground shaking and ground displacement.
Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of liquefaction.

If the surface material at a location is made up of unconsolidated sediments, such as fine-grained sands, alluvium or even landfill, and has a high water content, earthquake vibrations can cause the material to behave like a liquid. Consequently, the material’s strength is greatly weakened, resulting in riverbanks collapsing and structures tilting and sinking as their foundations give way.

Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of liquefaction.
Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of landslides and avalanches.

Slopes give way if they are shaken too much. Steep slopes in mountainous regions, such as Nepal, are notoriously unstable - Nepal is in a very active seismic zone but there has also been much deforestation, which removes the binding effect tree roots have on the slopes.

Landslides can block rivers in valley bottoms, forming a dam. As the water builds up upstream of the landslide, flooding from the temporary lake can threaten the valley downstream.

Landslides following an earthquake frequently disrupt transport routes in regions such as the Andes. Upland valleys are often used for reservoirs. An earthquake can threaten the stability of a dam either by weakening the dam through shaking or by causing a landslide to crash into the reservoir. This can send a high-energy wave over the top of the dam, causing it to weaken and possibly fail, flooding the valley below.

Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of landslides and avalanches.
Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of tsunamis.

Underwater earthquakes can cause the sea bed to rise. The water immediately above is displaced and powerful waves spread out. As these waves have a low height (<1m) and very long wavelength (up to 200km), they can race over the ocean surface undetected by ships. However, once they enter water wave height increases rapidly until the wave breaks, releasing a wall of water that crashes onto shore. The wave can exceed 25m in height and carry hundreds of tonnes of water per metre. The resulting devastation can be extreme and cause extensive flooding, both along the coast and inland along river valleys. Underwater. Landslides can also cause tsunami waves. When a large volume of rock is shaken free and slides downslope it drags large volumes of water with it. A wave results from the collision of water.

Explain the seismic (earthquake) hazard of tsunamis.
What percentage of earthquakes are shallow focus?

75% of s

What percentage of earthquakes are shallow focus?
How do brittle and dry rocks change the effects of seismic waves?

Seismic waves travel faster and the rock snaps easily.

How do brittle and dry rocks change the effects of seismic waves?
What is alluvium?

The general term given to material, usually clays, silts and fine-grained sands, deposited by a river when it overflows its banks and spreads across its floodplain.

What is alluvium?
Explain the difference between active, dormant and extinct volcanoes.

The likelihood of a volcano erupting is indicated by the terms active, dormant and extinct. Active volcanoes have erupted in the past 10,000 years, dormant volcanoes have not erupted in the past 10,000 years but is expected to erupt again some time in the future, extinct volcanoes are not expected to erupt again.

Explain the difference between active, dormant and extinct volcanoes.
What is the disaster risk equation.

Geophysical events such as volcanic eruptions and earthquakes become hazards when they pose a risk to people. How exposed and vulnerable a particular community or household is to a hazard can be indicted by the disaster risk equation.

Risk (R)=frequency or magnitude of hazard (H) × level of vulnerability (V)Capacity of population to cope and adapt (C)

or:

R=H × VCWhat is the disaster risk equation.
Define resilience.

The ability of countries, communities and households to resist, absorb and recover from shock and stress.

Define resilience.
What does physical exposure to earthquakes and volcanoes depend on?

Physical exposure to earthquakes and volcanoes depends on:

  • frequency of earthquake and/or volcanic eruption
  • magnitude of earthquake and/or volcanic eruption
  • types of hazards generated by the event in a particular location
  • number of people living in an area prone to tectonic events
What does physical exposure to earthquakes and volcanoes depend on?
How is a disaster defined?

CRED defines a disaster as >10 people killed and/or >100 people affected.

How is a disaster defined?
What influences the particular shape of the curve.

The particular shape of the curve varies according to a number of factors.

  • Physical factors:
    • speed of onset of tectonic event
    • magnitude of event
    • length of time the event lasts
  • Human factors:
    • quality and quantity of monitoring along a seismic zone
    • degree of preparation
    • quality and quantity of relief
What influences the particular shape of the curve.
A table showing strategies for managing tectonic hazards.

Click here to view the table

A table showing strategies for managing tectonic hazards.
What is the importance of the asthenosphere being semi-molten?

Because the asthenosphere is semi-molten, it moves under the influence of convection currents. As it moves, the rigid lithosphere and crest above are dragged across the Earth’s surface. This is the basis of plate tectonics.

What is the importance of the asthenosphere being semi-molten?
Why is lava chemistry an important factor in influencing how dangerous a volcano is?

The more acidic lava is, the less free flowing it is. Viscous lava tends to clog the vent, resulting in great pressure building up within the volcano. When the pressure reaches a critical level a very explosive eruption takes place.

Why is lava chemistry an important factor in influencing how dangerous a volcano is?
What is liquefaction?

Liquefaction is where ground (including soil) with a higher water content loses its mechanical strength due to being violently shaken during an earthquake. The ground then behaves like a liquid and cannot support structures, which topple and collapse.

What is liquefaction?
Why has there been an increase in the number of disasters arising from tectonic hazards?

As population has increased globally, regionally and locally, more and more people are living in seismically active zones. When a tectonic event occurs, more people are affected.

Why has there been an increase in the number of disasters arising from tectonic hazards?
What is aseismic design?

Aseismic design is architecture and engineering of structures, including buildings, bridges and tunnels, so that they can withstand a certain degree of earthquake energy.

What is aseismic design?
What are the volcanic case studies?
  • Eyjafjallajökull, Iceland - April 2010 (AC)
  • Anak Krakatau, Indonesia - December 2018 (EDC)
  • Mt Pinatubo, The Philippines - June 1991 (LIDC at the time, now EDC)
  • Mount Saint Helens, United States - May 1980 (AC)
What are the volcanic case studies?
What is the population of Iceland? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

338000

What is the population of Iceland? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
What is the capital city of Iceland? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

Reykjavik.

What is the capital city of Iceland? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
What type of volcano was involved in the Iceland volcano? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

A sub-glacial strato-volcano (Eyjafjallajokull is actually the name of the glacier).

What type of volcano was involved in the Iceland volcano? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
Why would strato-volcanos be anomalous in Iceland? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

This is an anomaly as Iceland is on a constructive plate boundary (Mid Atlantic Ridge) and therefore should be a effusive shield volcano. Bárðarbunga is another active volcano on the island.

Why would strato-volcanos be anomalous in Iceland? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
How well monitored and mitigated was the location? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

Very well monitored volcanic location, with good mitigation stratgies in place.

How well monitored and mitigated was the location? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
When was activity first detected and when did Eyjafjallajökull erupt? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

Date: 15th April 2010 - activity had been detected since 20th March 2010.

When was activity first detected and when did Eyjafjallajökull erupt? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
Explain the causes of the Eyjafjallajökull eruption. (2010 Iceland Volcano)

Iceland sits on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, a constructive plate boundary which is seeing the divergence of North America and Europe.

Seismologists monitoring the volcano were aware of increased activity form March which indicated that magma was rising to the surface. As the magma chamber filled up, pressure increased inside the volcano and magma started to rise to the surface from 20th March. This caused significant lava flows, but then quietened down. However, in the two weeks in which there was less activity on the surface, more magma was rising from the mantle and mixing with existing magma in the magma chamber. This triggered chemical reactions, thus creating more gases which resulted in the explosive eruptions and from 12th April lava was flowing from the magma chamber again. By 15th April the vents below the glacier were full of magma and the glacier burst open melting the glacier and causing extensive flooding (jokulhlaups).

Explain the causes of the Eyjafjallajökull eruption. (2010 Iceland Volcano)
Explain the effects of ash/tephra in the Iceland eruption? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

Ash clouds up to 30,000 feet into the air, resulting in tephra being dispersed across the local area, but also much of north-east Europe. This became know as an ‘ash-pocolypse’.

Explain the effects of ash/tephra in the Iceland eruption? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
What were the effects of the ‘ash-pocolypse’? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

International air travel was affected (see mitigation) causing hundreds of thousands of people to be displaced with hoidays cancelled, and business commuters unable to travel. Volcano refugees.

What were the effects of the ‘ash-pocolypse’? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
How was trade affected in the Iceland eruption? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

Trade was also affected with cargo flights cancelled. For example, Kenya lost US$35 million due to fresh good decaying.

How was trade affected in the Iceland eruption? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
What was the total cost of the Eyjafjallajökull eruption? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

US$ 2.8 billion.

What was the total cost of the Eyjafjallajökull eruption? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
What was the effect on the oil industry and the stock market? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

This also caused less demand for air fuel, which affected the oil industry and also saw stock market shares in air travel companies fall.

What was the effect on the oil industry and the stock market? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
How was the Iceland volcanic eruption mitigated? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

Airspace was closed to mitigate the risk of an aviation disaster, with 100,000 flights cancelled at a cost of more than US$200 million per day.

How was the Iceland volcanic eruption mitigated? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
What was the need for emergency aid? (2010 Iceland Volcano)

There was no need for emergency aid as such as there were no injuries or damage to buildings.

What was the need for emergency aid? (2010 Iceland Volcano)
What is the population of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)

238 million.

What is the population of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)
What is the capital city of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)

Jakarta.

What is the capital city of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)
What was the date and time of the Anak Krakatoa volcanic eruption?

Date: 23rd December 2018. Time: 21.00 (tsunami) - the eruption continued for approx 1 week.

What was the date and time of the Anak Krakatoa volcanic eruption?
Locational information on the Anak Krakatoa volcano.

Indonesia is located on the Pacific Ring of Fire which means there is a constant risk of natural disasters, such as tsunamis, volcanic eruptions and earthquakes. The volcano lies in the Sunda Strait, on the site of Krakatoa which erupted in 1883 and is the most destructive explosive volcano ever with the power for 4 nuclear bombs (causing a volcanic winter) between Java and Sumatra, linking the Indian Ocean and the Java Sea on a subduction plate boundary.

Locational information on the Anak Krakatoa volcano.
How did the resultant tsunami form following the Anak Krakatoa volcanic eruption? (2018)

The tsunami was triggered by the eruption of Anak Krakatoa (child of Krakatoa, formed 44 years after the original eruption), which set off an undersea landslide when a 64 cubic hectare side (flank) of the volcano collapsed into the sea.

How did the resultant tsunami form following the Anak Krakatoa volcanic eruption? (2018)
What Indonesian islands had coastal towns effected by the tsunami?

Due to the magnitude of the explosive eruption (primary effect), the flanks (sides) of the volcano collapsed into the Indian Ocean triggering a displacement of water. This large tsunami swept into the coastal towns on the Indonesian islands of Sumatra and Java.

What Indonesian islands had coastal towns effected by the tsunami?
How many deaths occurred as a result of the Anak Krakatoa eruption and resultant tsunami?

429

How many deaths occurred as a result of the Anak Krakatoa eruption and resultant tsunami?
How many injuries occurred as a result of the Anak Krakatoa eruption and resultant tsunami?

At least 1,400.

How many injuries occurred as a result of the Anak Krakatoa eruption and resultant tsunami?
Where did the majority of the deaths following the 2018 Anak Krakatoa eruption occur?

Many of the deaths were at a rock concert held on Tanjung Lesung beach, west Java where the musicians and crowd were oblivious to the danger until the first wave struck.

Where did the majority of the deaths following the 2018 Anak Krakatoa eruption occur?
What was the damage to houses, hotels, food stalls, boats? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)

Approx. 556 houses, nine hotels, 60 food stalls and 350 boats are known to have been damaged.

What was the damage to houses, hotels, food stalls, boats? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)
How many people were displaced? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)

At least 16,000.

How many people were displaced? (2018 Indonesia Volcano)
How could the 2018 Indonesia eruption of been mitigated?

Unlike seismic tsunamis, volcanic tsunamis may not trigger warning systems that are designed to alarm after large-scale earthquakes so there is little or no warning prior to the tsunami making landfall. It took just 23 minutes for the tsunami to reach land after the volcano erupted.

Even if a buoy were located close to Anak Krakatoa, this is so close to the affected shorelines that warning times would have been minimal given the high speeds at which tsunami waves travel.

How could the 2018 Indonesia eruption of been mitigated?
What were the responses to the 2018 Indonesia eruption?

Aid agencies (NGO’s) supported the evacuation of the injured and provided clean water, shelter and tarpaulins.

Volunteer groups cooked meals for people who were displaced / emergency camps.

What were the responses to the 2018 Indonesia eruption?
How was the responses to the 2018 Indonesia eruption hindered?

Torrential rain followed the eruption, and this slowed down the emergency aid and rescue operations.

How was the responses to the 2018 Indonesia eruption hindered?
What is the population of The Philippines? (1991 Philippines Volcano)

105 million.

What is the population of The Philippines? (1991 Philippines Volcano)
What is the capital city of The Philippines? (1991 Philippines Volcano)

Manilla.

What is the capital city of The Philippines? (1991 Philippines Volcano)
Locational information on the The Philippines. (1991 Philippines Volcano)

Tectonically active location, but also regularly affected by devastating typhoons i.e. Haiyan in 2013, and Mangkhut 2018.

Locational information on the The Philippines. (1991 Philippines Volcano)
What is the level of development of The Philippines? (1991 Philippines Volcano)

At the time an LIDC (cusp of EDC) very reliant on primary industry such as fishing and agriculture.

What is the level of development of The Philippines? (1991 Philippines Volcano)
What is the population of the US? (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)

332 million.

What is the population of the US? (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)
What is the capital city of the US? (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)

Washington DC.

What is the capital city of the US? (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)
What was the date and time of the Mount St. Helens volcanic eruption?

Date: 27th March 1980. Time: 08:32.

What was the date and time of the Mount St. Helens volcanic eruption?
What type of volcano is Mount St. Helens?

Mount St. Helens is a stratovolcano, a steep-sided volcano located in the Pacific Northwest region of the United States in the state of Washington.

What type of volcano is Mount St. Helens?
How many deaths occurred as a result of the Mount St. Helens eruption?

About 57.

How many deaths occurred as a result of the Mount St. Helens eruption?
What are the main effects of the 1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano?

As a result of the eruption hundreds of square miles were reduced to wasteland, causing over $1 billion in damage (equivalent to $3.5 billion in 2020), thousands of animals were killed, and Mount St. Helens was left with a crater on its north side.

What are the main effects of the 1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano?
Response (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)

Response (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)
Mitigation (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)

Mitigation (1980 Mount St. Helens Volcano)
What are the seismic case studies?
  • Tōhoku, Japan - April 2011 (AC)
  • Sulawesi, Indonesia - September 2018 (EDC)
  • Gorkha, Nepal - April 2015 (LIDC)
  • Haiti - January 2010 (LIDC)
What are the seismic case studies?
What is the population of Japan? (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)

What is the population of Japan? (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)
What is the capital city of Japan? (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)

Tokyo, affected by the earthquake.

What is the capital city of Japan? (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)
Cause (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)

Cause (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)
Effect (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)

Effect (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)
Response (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)

Response (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)
Mitigation (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)

Mitigation (2011 Tōhoku Earthquake)
What is the population of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)

238 million.

What is the population of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)
What is the capital city of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)

Jakarta.

What is the capital city of Indonesia? (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)
Cause (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)

Cause (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)
Effect (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)

Effect (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)
Response (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)

Response (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)
Mitigation (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)

Mitigation (2018 Indonesia Earthquake)
What is the population of Nepal? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

29 million.

What is the population of Nepal? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
What is the capital city of Nepal? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

Katmandu.

What is the capital city of Nepal? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
How far was Kathmandu from the epicentre? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

Kathmandu was 90km from the earthquake epicentre.

How far was Kathmandu from the epicentre? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
What was the date and time of the earthquake? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

Date: 15th April 2015, time: 11:56.

What was the date and time of the earthquake? (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
Cause (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

Cause (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
Effect (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

Effect (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
Response (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

Response (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
Mitigation (2015 Nepal Earthquake)

Mitigation (2015 Nepal Earthquake)
What is the population of Haiti? (2010 Haiti Earthquake)

What is the population of Haiti? (2010 Haiti Earthquake)
What is the capital city of Haiti? (2010 Haiti Earthquake)

What is the capital city of Haiti? (2010 Haiti Earthquake)
Cause (2010 Haiti Earthquake)

Cause (2010 Haiti Earthquake)
Effect (2010 Haiti Earthquake)

Effect (2010 Haiti Earthquake)
Response (2010 Haiti Earthquake)

Response (2010 Haiti Earthquake)
Mitigation (2010 Haiti Earthquake)

Mitigation (2010 Haiti Earthquake)
(June 2018) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about impacts of earthquakes on people. (3 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 3/3 = A* grade (100%)

See examiner commentary

The candidate has identified 3 clear limitations of the text; the provenance and accuracy of the source, the limited impacts discussed, and the choice of only 2 high magnitude earthquakes. All points are relevant, and the answer is clearly set out.

(June 2018) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about impacts of earthquakes on people. (3 marks)
(June 2018) Question 5 (b) Explain the features of explosive volcanic eruptions. (6 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 6/6 = A* grade (100%)

Explosive volcanic eruptions tend to occur at convergent plate boundaries. These are characterised by very viscous magma with a high silica content - for example, rhyolite or andesite. The means that gas bubles can't escape freely so they are characterised by hige build ups of pressure in the vents of a volcano.

An example of an explosive eruption is in vulcanian eruption. The viscous magma plugs the vents until the pressure is released during a huge eruption measuring 6 in the VEI (Volcanic Explosivity Index).

As a result, during an explosive eruption much of the cone is destroyed - producing a caldera which is up to 2km wide. Explosive eruptions are associaed with hazards such as pyroclastic flows and ash clouds, and secondary hazards of lahars. A pyroclastic flow occurs when the cone collapses - producing a high denisty mix of gas, ash and rock which leaves the volcano at 500ºC+ and up to 100kmh.

This question was asking candidates for an explanation of the features of explosive volcanoes. Whilst some candidates focused solely on describing the features, this answer correctly links the magma type to the build-up of pressure caused, and as a result the explosive characteristics. This focus on explanation demonstrates thorough knowledge and understanding of explosive eruptions and thus full marks was credited.

(June 2018) Question 5 (b) Explain the features of explosive volcanic eruptions. (6 marks)
(June 2019) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about earthquakes occuring in Iran. (3 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 3/3 = A* grade (100%)

  • The scale for number of earthquakes should have smaller intervals such as 0, 25, 50, 75, 100, etc.
  • The magnitude of the earthquake is not stated as earthquakes can be minor (tremors) or major and can be easily generalised from the graph.
  • The graph is outdated, ends in 2013 and the increments on the year scale skip years such as 1881 and 1882 being missing and they could have experienced some earthquakes making this source of information unreliable.

This candidate selected 3 limitations clearly on scale, magnitude and also the fact that the graph was out of date ending in 2013. They also identified the missing intervals.The majority of candidates were able to select 3 clear limitations and this type of answer appeared in many responses.

(June 2019) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about earthquakes occuring in Iran. (3 marks)
(June 2019) Question 5 (b) Explain the evidence for sea-floor spreading. (6 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 6/6 = A* grade (100%)

One evidence of sea-floor spreading was Alfred Wegner's theory of Pangea around 250 million years ago. He believed that all the continents were one all together and over time they drifted away by tectonic sea-floor spreading and are now where they are all over the globe. However, his theory was made redundant as he had no scientific evidence to prove his theory.

Furthermore, palaeomagnetism was used to track submarines underwater but eventually they began to be used to research further into sea-floor spreading. On rocks stripes were found which had been created by rock containing iron (FE21) which marked the rocks. These markings were found to be determined by the polarity of Earth which is constantly changing every 409,000 to 500,000 years. Overtime, ocean trenches were discovered and eventually this mechanism was used to support Wegner's theory.

Fossils can also evidence sea-floor spreading as they are found in different parts of the world and if found in multiple locations, proves high chances of sea floor spreading. An example of this is a mesosaurus which is a species of crocodile which can only survive in fresh water. This fossil was found in both South America and South Africa. This supports sea-floor spreading as the crocodile would have been unable to swim across due to lack of fresh water.

In the majority of cases this question was well answered and clearly something the majority of candidates had a good understanding of.The key pieces of evidence are age of sea floor rocks, evidence of continental drift and Paleaomagnetism. Examiners were primarily looking to see there was knowledge and understanding in the ‘explanation’ of Palaeomagnetism. The inclusion of this information was essential in candidates being able to achieve Level 3. This candidate’s answer goes above and beyond the full 6/6 marks achieved, as it demonstrates excellent Geography. The answer clearly picks up the idea of stripes forming in the rock which contain iron particles. They link the changing patterns to the shift in polarity of earth and ocean trenches, thus the idea of sea floor growing and spreading. Commonly candidates were able to link ideas such as shape of continents, fossil evidence and rock type as additional evidence for sea floor spreading. This candidate has equally included and explained a wide variety of this evidence in their answer, securing them full marks. Those candidates only able to describe the evidence with simple ideas would have likely achieved a Level 1.

(June 2019) Question 5 (b) Explain the evidence for sea-floor spreading. (6 marks)
(June 2019) Question 19 ‘Location is a significant factor in determining the severity of the impacts of an active volcano’. Discuss. (33 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 30/33 (AO1 8 marks/AO2 22 marks) = A* grade (90.9%)

Location is a very significant factor in determining the severity of the impacts of an active volcano. For people, how local they are to an active volcano can determine its severity, as well as for the economy and industrial sectors.

Countries that lie on tectonically active zones such as Iceland are always prone to volcanic eruptions and can therefore predict the severity of the impacts of a volcanic eruption. In 2010, the volcano Eyjafjallajökull erupted. releasing a 10km high plume of ash. Due to winds, this plume of ash reached parts of Europe. This eruption was therefore severe on a global scale, as 100,000 flights had to be cancelled, and there was a fear of ash settling thickly in and around mainland Europe. Despite this, at a local scale, the local people did not experience the eruption as severe as it could have if it were not for the winds that carried the ash elsewhere. Local people did have to evacuate, however, but this is not as severe as the 100,000 flight cancellations globally (at a cost of US$200 million/day). In addition, what makes Eyjafjallajökull more significant is the fact that it was an explosive eruption rather than the expected effusive. This is due to a locational aspect. Beneath the surface of the Eyjafjallajökull volcano, the main magma chamber was located near a second, smaller magma chamber. Both magma chambers had different densities and types of magma within them so when they mixed the eruption was explosive - atypical for an Icelandic volcano. This makes the overall impacts of the eruption more severe.

Another way in which location can determine the severity of the impacts of an active volcano is if the volcano is located on an island or near a coast. These types of volcanoes, particularly if they are strato-volcanoes (explosive), often possess more severe impacts than others, i.e. high risk of secondary hazards such as tsunami. An example is the 1883 Krakatoa eruption in Sumatra, Indonesia. The volcanic activity caused a large tsunami, drowning 36,000 people. Also, in December 2018, Krakatoa erupted again, initiating another tsunami, killing roughly 429 people. Not only does this severely impact local people socially, but also economically. In the 2018 eruption 80% of agricultural land was destroyed, severely impacting food stock levels and jobs in the agricultural sector. This eruption thus lead to there being 110,000 refugees and 16,000 people being displaced. Therefore, countries who have a history of facing tectonic hazards, such as volcanoes in Indonesia, and who are situated in prone locations for disastrous effects of eruptions, including tsunamis, should be able to determine the severity of volcanic activity impacts.

In addition, location can determine the severity of the impacts of an active volcano in terms of international aid, if required. For example, the Mount St Helen's volcanic eruption in 1983, despite its severe impacts in the short term, managed to recover relatively quickly due to the location. Had this volcano not been in the USA, an AC with a HDI of 0.926, then aid and recovery would have been a little slower, prolonging the impacts. Furthermore people located in richer countries (namely ACs such as USA, Japan and Italy) are able to have access to much more information, predictions and equipment to determine when and if an eruption is due. This allows a country to effectively mitigate and protect the local people around the volcano. However, poorer countries, such as Indonesia (an HDI of 0.718), do not have as much access to these pieces of equipment and technology. This further inhibits economic development, and leads to much more severe impacts than that of richer countries.

In continuation, the fact that the Yellowstone Super Volcano is situated in the USA makes it easier to determine tthe severity of the impacts, especially as it is an active volcano in the present day. If this active super volcano was located elsewhere, such as Toba - a supervolcano in Indonesia which erupted 69,000 years ago, then not much information would be known, and not much planning could be done. (A super volcano is one that releases over 1000km3 of material).

Overall, location is an exceptionally important factor in determining the severity of the impacts of an active volcano. It appears that countries in the northern hemisphere are better prepared and have less disastrous impacts than those in the southern hemisphere.

Hazards is by far the most popular option on the paper. This question was the marginally less popular of the two. The question allowed a great deal of scope on the severity of impacts of a volcanic eruption due to location. Focus tended to be on location being at different ends of the development spectrum as opposed to location being about its actual situation; this could have included coastal or inland for example.This candidate however is a very successful example of ‘comprehensive’ discussion of the locational factors which can affect volcanic impact. They use a range of examples - Iceland, Indonesia and the USA (with use of both Mt St Helens and Yellowstone). This use of a variety of examples has enabled the candidate to discuss a range of factors such as the type of eruption, island location, potential scale of an eruption as well as the concept of ability to mitigate as a result of the countries level of development.This is an excellent answer and as examiners, this style of answer is great to see, as not only is the candidate is really exploring the title but they are also showing good Geography with breadth of examples. This has enabled them to provide clear, convincing analysis which is both accurate and authority.Where this candidate could have improved was showing a little more specific detail, such as key figures or the idea of the Icelandic ash being in the proximity of the jet stream. Expansion of types of eruptions and their explosively could have been expanded upon or why super volcanoes are considered to be such a risk in today’s World. This are however only small details as this is a very successful answer.

(June 2019) Question 19 ‘Location is a significant factor in determining the severity of the impacts of an active volcano’. Discuss. (33 marks)
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(June 2018) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about impacts of earthquakes on people. (3 marks)

AO3 - 3 marks

3x1 for limitations of the data identified through critical questioning of the resource.

The text extract focuses on the impacts of earthquakes. Possible limitations include:

  • No quantitative indication of earthquake energy released in the China event
  • No indication of non-fatal casualties including long-term injuries e.g. amputations from the two events mentioned
  • Lower energy events not detailed ‘... have also killed.’
  • Economic impacts - quantified but in US $ so not clear as to what this means locally i.e. purchasing power
  • Several statistics are estimated
  • Only two Asian earthquakes are mentioned within the text - we are lacking information on the impacts of earthquakes elsewhere
  • No indication of short, medium or long-term issues of welfare e.g. housing, clean water supply, food supply
  • Provenance of text

Candidates were asked to identify the limitations of a text extract as a source of impacts of earthquakes on people. The vast majority managed to suggest two or three appropriate limitations, such as the absence of information regarding non-fatal casualties and that the lower energy events were not accompanied by any detail as to their impacts. Many responses also picked up that some of the statistics were estimates or that the two earthquakes highlighted were both in Asia.

(June 2018) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about impacts of earthquakes on people. (3 marks)
(June 2018) Question 5 (b) Explain the features of explosive volcanic eruptions. (6 marks)

AO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the features of explosive eruptions could potentially include:

  • Tend to involve acidic lava e.g. rhyolite and andesite
  • Acidic lava ( high % silica), high viscosity, lower temperature at eruption
  • Violent bursting of gas bubbles when magma reaches surface; highly explosive eruption; pyroclastic flows
  • Materials erupted can include gases, dust, ash, lava bombs, tephra
  • Frequency of eruption - tend to have long periods with no activity

Explanations of the features of explosive eruptions tended to be reasonable or contain well-developed ideas. The key discriminator was the extent to which the response ‘explained’ the features rather than simply ‘described’ them, with too many candidates offering only descriptive narrative. For example, comments about the acidic and viscous nature of the magma were appropriate but needed to be linked to the tendency for vents within a volcano to become blocked by solidified magma. This in turn allows great pressure to build up when more material rises up from the magma chamber until the forces became so great that an explosive eruption occurs. It was disappointing when examples of explosive eruptions were allocated to divergent boundaries with many responses referring to Iceland or the well-publicised recent eruptions on Hawaii.

(June 2018) Question 5 (b) Explain the features of explosive volcanic eruptions. (6 marks)
(June 2018) Question 10 Assess how tectonic hazards impact either global trade or global migration. (12 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of tectonic hazards and either global trade or global migration could potentially include:

  • Tectonic hazards - volcanic - lava, pyroclastic flows, tephra especially ash, lahars, toxic gas, floods, tsunami
  • Tectonic hazards - earthquake - ground shaking + displacement, liquefaction, landslides + avalanches, tsunami
  • Global trade - merchandise, services and capital - direction of flows, volumes, composition (e.g. primary / secondary goods) and value
  • Global migration - dynamic flows of people between countries, regions and continents - numbers, composition (e.g. ages / gender) and direction

AO2 - 6 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse how tectonic hazards can impact either global trade or global migration could potentially include:

  • Tectonic hazards can negatively impact global trade e.g. volcanic eruption which produces much ash can impact air transport e.g. Eyjafjallajökull, Iceland 2010
  • Tectonic hazards can negatively impact global trade e.g. earthquake which damages port facilities e.g. Kobe, Japan 1995
  • Tectonic hazards can negatively impact global trade e.g. tsunami damaging port facilities e.g. Aceh, 2004 and Japan 2011
  • Tectonic hazards can cause landslides which block land routes e.g. Kashmir 2005 preventing cross-border trade
  • Tectonic hazards can encourage out-migration from a location e.g. a severe earthquake can be the ‘final straw’ encouraging some to leave e.g. Haiti 2010 (migration to Brazil) and Nepal 2015 (increase in human trafficking)
  • Tectonic hazards can encourage out-migration from a location e.g. severe volcanic eruption such as Montserrat 1995 →
  • Positive impacts - volcanic activity can ↑ tourism which leads to employment opportunities e.g. Etna, Hawaii
  • Positive impacts - volcanic activity often gives fertile soils thereby reducing out-migration
  • Positive impacts - hazards can create demand for equipment to help deal with damage - boosts trade
  • Positive impacts - short-term in-migration of aid and relief personnel
  • Discussion regarding the lack of impact on migration are equally valid e.g. in some ACs, resources to support people have meant that migration hasn’t occurred
  • Impact on migration could be affected by the scale of the tectonic event (most tectonic events are low/medium energy and therefore pose a limited hazard impact)

The requirement here was to assess how tectonic hazards impact either global trade or global migration. Candidates delivered a wide range in the quality of assessments with the less effective responses relying on an unpacking of one or two case studies, ending with little more than that hazards cause people to migrate and trade to decline. More convincing responses made effective use of the impacts the eruptions on the island of Montserrat, and the Haiti and Nepal earthquakes had on migration flows, in these examples on emigration. In terms of negative impacts on global trade, the ash cloud resulting from the eruption of the Eyjafjallajökull volcano and the Kobe and Tōhoku earthquakes were deployed successfully by many.It was a minority, albeit a significant one, that assessed the positive impacts of hazards, mostly in the context of volcanic eruptions. These were recognised as yielding fertile soils once weathered, allowing farmers the opportunity to raise agricultural produce, which could then enter trading flows. The slopes of Etna, and the Indonesian and Japanese volcanoes were frequently cited. Trade in terms of services such as tourism was another example of positive impacts, with the recent eruptions on Hawaii offered as a contemporary example, as well as more historic ones such as visitors to Pompeii.

(June 2018) Question 10 Assess how tectonic hazards impact either global trade or global migration. (12 marks)
(June 2018) Question 19 Assess the extent to which the decision to live in tectonically active locations is determined by economic factors. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of the reasons for living in tectonically active locations could potentially include:

  • Economic reasons: jobs and income from tourism, cheap geothermal energy, valuable minerals nearby, lack of income to move, taking advantage of cheaper housing.
  • Social reasons: low perception of hazard risk, low frequency of hazard, family and community are more important than the hazard risk, new building design and protection methods mean that people feel safe, a sense of security from evacuation and warning systems.
  • Environmental: in areas highly dependent on agriculture volcanic soils are very fertile.

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which the decision to live in tectonically active areas is determined by economic factors could potentially include:

  • There will be variations in the basis of decisions between ACs and LIDCs - in an AC such as Japan there will be a high level of confidence in prediction and prevention and in ACs also support from insurance is much greater. In LIDCs there are few who can afford insurance and there is less investment in technology for prevention, protection and prediction.
  • Individuals make risk assessments based on a range of factors - economic but also social, as they relate to their personal circumstances.
  • Some individuals have a strong sense of belonging and emotional attachment to a place and have a low perception of risk.
  • Some individuals will not have the financial means to move or the skills set or opportunities to move elsewhere to a different job. They may also lose money in a house sale (negative equity) or even find it impossible to sell their home.
  • Hazard perception is an important concept - some hazards are very infrequent, Pinatubo erupted in the Philippines in 1991 but it had been 600 years since the previous eruption.
  • Concept of inertia - it has always been like this.
  • A range of examples can be used to illustrate the points above; the specification requires 2 x 2 case studies.

This Option is the most popular by far and this question was chosen by just under a third of the entry. There was a wide variety in the quality of responses assessing the extent to which the decision to live in tectonically active locations is determined by economic factors. Most candidates were keen to offer support to the assertion quoting jobs and income from farming using the relatively high fertility of weathered volcanic soils as reasons to live close to volcanoes. Real world examples commonly came from Indonesia and Sicily. The same economic reasons were suggested in the context of tourism with Iceland, Japan and Hawaii deployed as exemplification. A minority of candidates discussed the role of geothermal power generation as being a positive factor in peoples’ decisions. Some essays made the valid comment that in several EDCs and LIDCs, many low-income families simply do not have the economic resources to move away from tectonically active locations. Examples quoted here in support of the argument included the Democratic Republic of Congo, Indonesia and the Philippines.While most essays focused on volcanic activity, the more convincing discussions included helpful material on living with earthquakes. As with volcanic activity, inability to move away due to an absence of economic resources was cited but very effective evaluation was offered by the upper quartile of candidates concerning ACs. In these locations, where command of substantial economic resources by both state and individuals is evident, societies and individuals can invest in measures such as aseismic design, warning systems and sophisticated search and rescue methods and equipment. Thus, millions live in tectonically active regions such as Japan and Southern California.Amongst the more convincing discussions, the role of perception of tectonic hazards was assessed. Some hazards are very infrequent with long recurrence intervals, which leads to people allocating a low probability to the risk of a major event. Social reasons such as family ties to a particular location such as a plot of farm land were cited in many responses.

(June 2018) Question 19 Assess the extent to which the decision to live in tectonically active locations is determined by economic factors. (33 marks)
(June 2018) Question 20 To what extent is it possible to manage hazards arising from earthquakes? (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of the hazards arising from earthquakes and their management could potentially include:

The following earthquake hazards:

  • All result in potential for loss of life on a large scale, injury, economic loss and long term trauma.
  • Ground shaking - collapse of buildings, damage to infrastructure, displacement to rocks and ground surface, disruption to natural drainage surface water supplies and groundwater.
  • Tsunamis - destruction of buildings and infrastructure, coastal flooding.
  • Landslides and rockfalls - destruction of property and infrastructure
  • Ground subsidence - slope failure, infrastructure damaged, large structures such as dams may fail leading to flooding.
  • Liquefaction - natural features e.g. river banks collapse, building structures affected, buildings collapse.
  • After shocks - these can take emergency services by surprise and cause further injury, loss of life, damage and destruction.
  • The following strategies to manage hazards:
  • Land use zoning - land uses with high economic cost of repair or potential for high loss of life moved to low risk sites.
  • Building design - fire proof materials, steel frames, shock absorbers,
  • Education, warning systems, insurance.

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which it is possible to manage hazards arising from earthquakes could potentially include:

  • Opportunities and potential success in management of the hazards resulting from earthquakes vary with level of economic development, resources available, level of expertise and technology available.
  • Management can also vary over time as progress is made in prediction and protection technology and scientists’ understanding of long term patterns of hazard activity which can make management more effective.
  • New organisations e.g. WAPMERR aim to bring together different agencies in hazard management however, such organisations are dependent on both human and financial resources. They can give predictions but 100% accuracy in hazard prediction and planning is unlikely to occur.
  • A range of methods should be considered in the context of 2 case studies, as the specification requires, at contrasting levels of economic development.
  • Evaluation points may include: personal choice eg whether to invest in home protection or insurance; perception of risk eg education and safety drills may be met with complacency by residents if they perceive the hazard risk as low due to infrequency,
  • Warning systems are not always accurate and this can result in loss of confidence in them and economic cost of disruption.
  • Even in LIDCs there are effective means of hazard management and expert knowledge, it should not be assumed that only ACs can engage in effective management although obviously, their access to human and financial resources does make a difference to resilience.
  • Sometimes natural factors come into play which cannot be managed - the unpredictable nature of earthquakes, the physical geography of a country may mean that emergency services are hindered.
  • The extent to which hazards can be managed in the short and long term will vary across different countries and this impacts on how long the effects are felt, in LIDCs the hazard impact from earthquake events may well be more long lasting.

This was the single most popular question in the entire paper. Discussions of the extent to which it is possible to manage hazards arising from earthquakes tended to vary according to how coherent the argument presented was. Less convincing essays tended to offer an approach characterised by too much descriMany candidates used the earthquakes in Japan (2011) and Nepal (2015) to good effect, deploying a range of statistics to support points being made about hazard management. It was good to read in many essays, commentary that avoided the overly simplistic perspective that ACs can manage earthquakes, LIDCs and EDCs cannot. In this context, the immense energy released off the coast of north-east Honshu Island was cited as an example of how even the best prepared of societies can struggle to manage all the hazards arising from earthquakes. Candidates also were aware that countries such as Nepal and Indonesia are trying to adopt strategies to manage earthquake hazards and that these efforts need to be appraised in the context of a particular economic, social and political set of circumstances. Some candidates made very effective use of the disaster-response curve reproducing the diagram and annotating it well.ptive narrative that jumped around from one management technique to another. While knowledge of individual techniques is valuable, the emphasis must be on ‘...to what extent...’. It was not always clear from a candidate’s prose, which particular earthquake hazards a management technique was designed to deal with. Linking ground shaking with aseismic design such as counter-weights or rubber absorbers in building foundations for example was effective.Many candidates used the earthquakes in Japan (2011) and Nepal (2015) to good effect, deploying a range of statistics to support points being made about hazard management. It was good to read in many essays, commentary that avoided the overly simplistic perspective that ACs can manage earthquakes, LIDCs and EDCs cannot. In this context, the immense energy released off the coast of north-east Honshu Island was cited as an example of how even the best prepared of societies can struggle to manage all the hazards arising from earthquakes. Candidates also were aware that countries such as Nepal and Indonesia are trying to adopt strategies to manage earthquake hazards and that these efforts need to be appraised in the context of a particular economic, social and political set of circumstances. Some candidates made very effective use of the disaster-response curve reproducing the diagram and annotating it well.

(June 2018) Question 20 To what extent is it possible to manage hazards arising from earthquakes? (33 marks)
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(June 2020) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about mitigation against vulnerability to hazards from earthquakes. (3 marks)

AO3 - 3 marks

3x1 for three limitations of the sketch as a source of information about mitigation against vulnerability to hazards from earthquakes identified through critical questioning of the resource.

The sketch shows a range of earthquake proofing techniques f or a building. Possible limitations include:

  • Lack of information on engineering techniques/materials used
  • Cost of mitigation (engineering)
  • Lack of data on effectiveness of earthquake proofing techniques f or buildings
  • Lack of detail on the type of earthquake waves that each building technique is mitigating against
  • No information on type of rock on which the building stands in relation to nature of engineering e.g. depth of piling
  • No other types of mitigation mentioned such as preparation
  • Lack of information about who has produced this - bias

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(June 2020) Question 5 (a) Identify three limitations of Fig. 5 as a source of information about mitigation against vulnerability to hazards from earthquakes. (3 marks)
(June 2020) Question 5 (b) Explain the features of shallow-focus earthquakes. (6 marks)

AO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the featuresof shallow-focus earthquakes could potentially include:

  • Shallow-focus earthquakes extend from surface to a depth of c.70km

Features:

  • Release of energy → either or both crustal / fault movements in brittle, cold rocks or magma movement. Also mine collapse. Therefore common - c. 75% of ‘quakes.
  • Although generally low magnitude, can cause relatively high levels of damage as energy released over a smaller area c.f. deep focus ‘quakes
  • Difference in time between primary + secondary waves relatively short as focus and epicentre close to each other.

NB Watch for mirror responses‘...shallow focus are.... Whereas deep focus are ...’Max bottom of L2 for such an answer.

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(June 2020) Question 5 (b) Explain the features of shallow-focus earthquakes. (6 marks)
(June 2020) Question 10 Assess how impacts of volcanic eruptions can affect place identity. (12 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 6 marks

Knowledge and understanding of the impacts of volcanic eruptions and place identity could potentially include:

Impacts of volcanic eruptions:

  • Impacts can include lava + pyroclastic flows, tephra (fine ash → volcanic bombs) lahars, toxic gases, floods, tsunami
  • Damage + disruption to built environment including infrastructure
  • Damage + disruption to natural environment
  • Death + injury to humans

Characteristics making up place identity include:

  • Physical geography
  • Demographic
  • Socio-economic
  • Cultural
  • Political
  • Built environment

AO2 - 6 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse how the impacts of volcanic eruptions can affect place identity could potentially include:

  • Impacts on place identity may depend on the nature and scale of the eruption such as explosive, effusive
  • Impacts can be short, medium or long term
  • Impacts on place identity may be negative e.g. disruption or destruction of place e.g. Montserrat / Armero / Chaiten
  • Impacts on place identity may be positive e.g. development of agriculture on fertile soil, mineral extraction or the tourism e.g. Indonesia, Japan
  • The impact on place identity may depend on the frequencyoferuptionsandtimeavailable for recovery e.g. Indonesia
  • The ability of authorities to mitigate against risk, perhaps enabling communities to live with risk may be a factor in influencing place identity e.g. Hawaii
  • Place identity may be inf luenced by how a place is branded or rebranded following eruption e.g. Iceland
  • Place identity may evolve over time and be influenced by a combination of past and present day characteristics in response to eruption, including multiple volcanic eruptions e.g. Etna

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(June 2020) Question 10 Assess how impacts of volcanic eruptions can affect place identity. (12 marks)
(June 2020) Question 19 ‘The impacts of earthquake activity vary with levels of economic development.’ How far do you agree with this statement? (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of economic development and the impacts of earthquakes could potentially include:

Impacts of earthquakes include social, economic + political + environmental most of which are interlinked:

  • Economic - damage + destruction to built environment including infrastructure e.g. transport, utilities; disruption to economic activities → loss of employment
  • Social - death + injury; families separated; loss of employment; disruption to education + health care
  • Political - ↑ demands placed on government for relief, rehabilitation + reconstruction; changes in political priorities; undermines ef f ective government at dif ferent scales e.g. national / regional / local
  • Environmental - damage + destruction e.g. landslides + avalanches; rivers dammed and then flood; pollution e.g. from damaged sewage, radio-active leaks
  • Earthquakes vary greatly in their magnitude

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate whether the impacts of earthquake activity vary with level of economic development could potentially include:

  • Distinguishing between long - short term impacts may indicate Level 3+
  • Economic impacts - ACs have resources to put into relief, rehabilitation + reconstruction; EDCs and LIDCs less so. However mitigation can be successful across economic continuum e.g. vernacular architecture in ‘quake prone regions - Iran, Turkey, Nepal. However, economic ‘hit’ can still be significant e.g. Tōhoku ‘quake estimated cost = $US 210 million to Japan + costs for other ACs e.g. California + Oregon coasts. EDCs + LIDCs appear to be less impacted but this is in absolute terms - considered proportionally the costs can be very significant e.g. Gorkha ‘quake, Nepal 2015 disrupted planting season → threatened food security.
  • Social impacts - death = the same awful impact no matter what level of econ. development. Injury can be more significant in EDCs + LIDCs as health care and capacity to cope more challenging e.g. loss of a limb. Separation of families and displacement of families - generally more significant in EDCs + LIDCs as fewer resources to manage this issue. Most ‘quake prone countries irrespective of level of econ development have improved their preparation. In general, no matter the level of econ development of the country, the poorer and more marginalised people tend to suf fer most fromimpacts.
  • Political - most ACs have generally robust and secure governmental organisations that cope. However, extreme magnitude events can pose significant challenges for all levels of econ development. An already insecure political situation can be exacerbated by an earthquake e.g. Nepal 2015. Tōhoku ‘quake had political ramifications regarding nuclear power - energised lobby against nuclear, mostly in ACs.
  • Environmental - possibly depends on magnitude more than econ development.
  • Other factors influence impact such as urban v rural, coastal or inland, nature of relief, time of event, season

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(June 2020) Question 19 ‘The impacts of earthquake activity vary with levels of economic development.’ How far do you agree with this statement? (33 marks)
(June 2020) Question 20 ‘Over time the ability to manage hazards from volcanic activity increases.’ Examine the extent to which this statement is true. (33 marks)

Indicative ContentAO1 - 9 marks

Demonstrating knowledge and understanding of risk and ability to manage hazards from volcanic activity over time could potentially include:

  • How and why risks from volcanic hazards change over time
  • Changes in frequency and impacts of volcanic hazards over time
  • Degree of risk posed by a hazard and the probability of the hazard event occurring
  • Possible current and future strategies to cope with risks from volcanic hazards (may include illustration from the Park model)
  • Hazard risk equation

AO2 - 24 marks

Application of knowledge and understanding to analyse and evaluate the extent to which risk decreases and ability to manage hazards from volcanic activity increases over time could potentially include:

  • Expect a range of examples [volcanoes and different levels of economic development].
  • Over last 150 years risk has increased in many tectonic hazards as frequency has increased. However, consideration needs to be taken of;
    • Population size as well as density and therefore proximity to risk
    • Monitoring and recording of events which will affect reliability of data
    • Human activity e.g. deforestation and landslides
  • Increased levels of development, technology and education so ability to cope increases, although this maybe limited as magnitude and predictability can override these factors e.g. Mt St Helen's erupting with a lateral blast was not predictable and could have caused significant damage, however evacuation orders minimised the human impact. Human decision in cost benefit analysis and risk assessment is a significant factor.
  • Ability to cope can grow with time learning from experience of strategies applied to previous volcanic events to minimise impacts in the future e.g. land use zoning, some maybe developed during relief and rehabilitation period e.g. lava diversion channels in Italy.
  • Historical examples such as Krakatoa would be used to exemplify change over time.
  • There is no way to predict exact date and time of any eruption and this cannot be altered by level of development.
  • Type of eruption can make the event harder to manage – e.g. Icelandic eruption – no control of ash cloud

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(June 2020) Question 20 ‘Over time the ability to manage hazards from volcanic activity increases.’ Examine the extent to which this statement is true. (33 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations with the data evidence in Fig. 5. (3 marks)

(Sample assessment materials) Question 1 (a) Identify three limitations with the data evidence in Fig. 5. (3 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 5 (b) Explain the features and processes at divergent plate boundaries. (6 marks)

(Sample assessment materials) Question 5 (b) Explain the features and processes at divergent plate boundaries. (6 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 10 Examine how the risks from tectonic hazards affect place making processes. (12 marks)

(Sample assessment materials) Question 10 Examine how the risks from tectonic hazards affect place making processes. (12 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 19 Assess the importance of governments in reducing the risks of tectonic hazards over time. (33 marks)

(Sample assessment materials) Question 19 Assess the importance of governments in reducing the risks of tectonic hazards over time. (33 marks)
(Sample assessment materials) Question 20 'Earthquakes generate only local hazards.’ Discuss. (33 marks)

(Sample assessment materials) Question 20 'Earthquakes generate only local hazards.’ Discuss. (33 marks)
Terms to refer to people.
  • Human capital
  • Labour
  • Employers
  • Individuals
  • Consumers
  • Customers
  • Households
  • Taxpayers
  • Shareholders
Terms to refer to people.
Terms to refer to money.
  • Cash
  • Royalty
  • Debt
  • Assets
  • Income
  • Finance
  • Revenue
  • Cost
  • Liquidity
  • Disposable income
  • Wealth
  • Price
  • Capital
  • Dividend
  • Profit
Terms to refer to money.
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
  • ABC
    • Accurate
    • Big
    • Clear
  • ACE
    • Axis
    • Curve
    • Equilibrium
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
What is a positive statement?

A statement of fact that can be scientifically tested to see if it is correct.

What is a positive statement?
What is a normative statement?

A statement that includes a value judgement and cannot be refuted just by looking at the evidence.

What is a normative statement?
Define need.

Something that is necessary for human survival, such as food, clothing, warmth or shelter.

Define need.
Define want.

Something that is desirable, such as fashionable clothing, but is not necessary for human survival.

Define want.
What is economic welfare?

The economic well-being of an individual, a group within society, or an economy.

What is economic welfare?
What is production?

A process, or set of processes, that converts inputs into output of goods.

What is production?
What are capital goods?

A good which is used in the production of other goods or services. Also known as a producer good.

What are capital goods?
What are consumer goods?

A good which is consumed by individuals or households to satisfy their needs or wants.

What are consumer goods?
What are factors of production?

Inputs into the production process, including land, labour, capital and enterprise.

What are factors of production?
What is meant by the term ‘finite resources’?

A resource, such as oil, which is scarce and runs out as it is used. Also known as a non-renewable resource.

What is meant by the term ‘finite resources’?
What are renewable resources?

A resource, such as timber, that with careful management can be renewed as it is used.

What are renewable resources?
Explain the fundamental economic problem.

How best to make decisions about the allocation of scarce resources among competing uses so as to improve and maximise human happiness and welfare.

Explain the fundamental economic problem.
Explain the concept of scarcity.

Results from the fact that people have unlimited wants but resources to meet these wants are limited. In essence, people would like to consume more goods and services than the economy is able to produce with its limited resources.

Explain the concept of scarcity.
What is an opportunity cost?

The cost of giving up the next best alternative.

What is an opportunity cost?
Study tip on scarcity, choice and opportunity cost.

Make sure you can link together the three concepts of scarcity, choice and opportunity cost.

Study tip on scarcity, choice and opportunity cost.
What is a production possibility frontier?

A curve depicting the various combinations of two products (or types of products) that can be produced when all the available resources are fully and efficiently employed.

What is a production possibility frontier?
Production possibility frontier diagram

Click here to view the diagram

Production possibility frontier diagram
What is economic growth?

The increase in the potential level of real output the economy can produce over a period of time.

What is economic growth?
What is full employment?

When all who are able and willing to work are employed.

What is full employment?
What is unemployment?

When not all of those who are able and willing to work are employed.

What is unemployment?
Explain productive efficiency.

Productive efficiency for the whole economy occurs when it is impossible to produce more of one good without producing less of another. For a firm it occurs when the average total cost of production is minimised.

Explain productive efficiency.
Explain allocative efficiency.

Allocative efficiency occurs when the available economic resources are used to produce the combination of goods and services that ebbs matches people’s tastes and preferences.

Explain allocative efficiency.
Summary of Economic methodology and the economic problem.
  • Economic methodology involves the application of tested economic theories to explain real-world economic behaviour.
  • It is important to understand the difference between positive and normative statements. A positive statement can be tested to see if it is correct or false; a normative statement is a statement that includes a value judgement which cannot be refuted purely by looking at the evidence.
  • The economic problem is how limited resources are used in relation to people’s desires and wants.
  • The economic problem results from scarcity.
  • Scarcity results in the need for choice.
  • Whenever a choice has to be made there is an opportunity cost.
  • The opportunity cost of any decision is the next best alternative forgone.
  • Economists generally assume that people are rational, choosing the best alternative available.
  • Production is a process, or set of processes, that converts inputs into outputs.
  • The inputs into the production process are called factors of production.
  • The entrepreneur is the factor of production that decides what to produce, how to produce and for whom to produce.
  • Environmental resources compromise all the natural resources that are used or can be used in the economic system.
  • Key economic concepts such as scarcity, choice, opportunity cost, economic growth, and full employment and unemployment, can be illustrated on a production possibility diagram (PPF).
  • A production possibility frontier illustrates the different combinations of goods that can be produced with a fixed quantity of resource.
  • Different economic systems allocate resources between different uses in different ways.
  • In a market economy, the price mechanism performs the allocative task.
  • The UK economy is a mixed economy, containing a mix of market and non-market sectors, and private and public sectors.
  • The nature of the UK mixed economy has changed during the last 40 years.
Summary of Economic methodology and the economic problem.
What is a competitive market?

A market in which the large number of buyers and sellers possess good market information and could easily enter or leave the market.

What is a competitive market?
What is a equilibrium price?

The price at which planned demand for a good or service exactly equals planned supply.

What is a equilibrium price?
What is a supply?

The quantity of a good or service that firms are willing and able to sell at given prices in a given period of time.

What is a supply?
What is a demand?

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to buy at given prices in a given period of time. For economists, demand is always effective demand.

What is a demand?
What is a effective demand?

The desire for a good or service backed by an ability to pay.

What is a effective demand?
What is a market demand?

The quantity of a good or service that all the consumers in a market are willing and able to buy at different market prices.

What is a market demand?
What is a condition of demand?

A determinant of demand, other than the good’s own price, other than the good’s own price, that fixes the position of the demand curve.

What is a condition of demand?
What is a increase in demand?

A rightward shift of the demand curve.

What is a increase in demand?
What is a decrease in demand?

A leftward shift of the demand curve.

What is a decrease in demand?
What is a normal good?

A good for which demand increases as income rises and demand decreases as income falls.

What is a normal good?
What is a inferior good?

A good for which demand decreases as income rises and demand increases as income falls.

What is a inferior good?
What is a elasticity?

The proportionate responsiveness of a second variable to an initial change in the first variable.

What is a elasticity?
What is a price elasticity of demand?

Measures the extent to which the demand for a good changes in response to a change in the price of that good.

What is a price elasticity of demand?
What is a income elasticity of demand?

Measures the extent to which the demand for a good changes in response to a change in income; it is calculated by dividing the percentage change in quantity demanded by the percentage change in income.

What is a income elasticity of demand?
What is a cross-elasticity of demand?

Measures the extent to which the demand for a good changes in response to a change in the price of another good; it is calculated by dividing the percentage change in quantity demanded of one good by the percentage change in the price of the other good.

What is a cross-elasticity of demand?
What is a market supply?

The quantity of a good or service that all firms plan to sell at given prices in a given period of time.

What is a market supply?
What is a profit?

The difference between total sales revenue and total costs of production.

What is a profit?
What is a total revenue (TR)?

The a firm receives from selling its output, calculated by multiplying the price by the quantity sold.

What is a total revenue (TR)?
What is a conditions of supply?

Determinants of supply, other than the good’s own price, that fix the position of the supply curve.

What is a conditions of supply?
What is a increase in supply?

A rightward shift of the supply curve.

What is a increase in supply?
What is a decrease in supply?

A leftward shift of the supply curve.

What is a decrease in supply?
What is a price elasticity of supply?

Measures the extent to which the supply of a good changes in response to a change in the price of that good.

What is a price elasticity of supply?
What is a equilibrium?

A state of rest or balance between opposing forces.

What is a equilibrium?
What is a disequilibrium?

A situation in a market when there is excess supply or excess demand.

What is a disequilibrium?
What is a market equilibrium?

A market is in equilibrium when planned demand equals planned supply and the demand curve crosses the supply curve. In the situation there is no excess demand or excess supply in the market. Unless some event disturbs the equilibrium, there is no reason for the price to change.

What is a market equilibrium?
What is a market disequilibrium?

Exists at any price other than the equilibrium price. When the market is in disequilibrium, either excess demand or excess supply exists in the market. Excess demand causes the price to rise until a new equilibrium is established. Conversely, excess supply causes the market price to fall until equilibrium is achieved.

What is a market disequilibrium?
What is a excess supply?

When firms wish to sell more than consumers wish to buy, with the price above the equilibrium price.

What is a excess supply?
What is a excess demand?

When consumers wish to buy more than firms wish to sell, with the price below the equilibrium price.

What is a excess demand?
What is a joint supply?

When one good is produced, another good is also produced from the same raw materials.

What is a joint supply?
What is a competing demand?

When raw materials are used to produce one good they cannot be used to produce another good.

What is a competing demand?
What is a complementary good?

A good in joint demand, or a good which is demanded at the same time as the other good.

What is a complementary good?
What is a substitute good?

A good in competing demand, namely a good which can be used in place of the other good.

What is a substitute good?
What is a composite demand?

Demand for a good which has more than one use.

What is a composite demand?
What is a derived demand?

This is the demand as a consequence of the demand for another good, e.g an increase in the demand for office space will lead to an increase in the demand for office furniture (an input into the production of another good).

What is a derived demand?
What is a allocatiive efficiency?

Occurs when the available economic resources are used to produce the combination of goods and services that best matches people’s tastes and preferences.

What is a allocatiive efficiency?
What is a productive efficiency?

For the economy as a whole occurs when it is impossible to produce more of one good without producing less of another. For a firm it occurs when the average total cost of production is minimised.

What is a productive efficiency?
What is a merit good?

A good which when consumed leads to benefits which other people enjoy, or a good for which the long-term benefit of consumption exceeds the the short-term benefit enjoyed by the person consuming the merit good. Whether a good should be regarded as a merit good depends on the value judgements being made.

What is a merit good?
Summary of Price determination in a competitive market
  • Demand means effective demand, based on ability as well as willingness to pay.
  • For most goods, demand curves slope downward.
  • A market supply curve shows how much of a good all the firms in the market intend to supply at different prices.
  • Supply curves usually slope upward because higher prices lead to higher profits, encouraging existing firms to produce more and attracting new firms into the market.
  • The conditions of demand fix the position of the demand curve and the conditions of supply fix the position of the supply curve.
  • If any of the conditions of demand (or supply) change, the demand curve (or the supply curve) shifts to a new position.
  • Movements along a demand curve or a supply curve must not be confused with a shift in the position of the curve.
  • There are four important elasticities: price, income and cross-elasticity of demand, and also price elasticity of supply.
  • The slope of a demand or supply curve is not the same as price elasticity of demand or supply.
  • It is important to understand the determinants of all the elasticities you need to know.
  • Market equilibrium occurs at the price at which the demand curve crosses the supply curve, i.e. where demand equals supply.
  • Disequilibrium occurs when there is either excess demand or excess supply in the market.
  • In a competitive market, changes in the market price eliminate excess demand or excess supply; this is how the price mechanism helps to allocate scarce resources.
  • You must practice applying market theory to different real-world markets.
Summary of Price determination in a competitive market
What is production?

Converts inputs or factors services into outputs of goods and services.

What is production?
What is short-run production?

Occurs when a firm adds variables factors of production to fixed factors of production.

What is short-run production?
What is long-run production?

Occurs when all the factors of production are variable.

What is long-run production?
What is productivity?

Output per unit of input.

What is productivity?
What is labour productivity?

Output per unit of labour.

What is labour productivity?
What is capital productiivty?

Output per unit of capital.

What is capital productiivty?
What is productivity gap?

The difference between labour productivity in the UK and in other developed economies.

What is productivity gap?
What is specialisation?

A worker only performing one task or a narrow range of tasks. Also, different firms specialising in producing different goods or services.

What is specialisation?
What is division of labour?

This concept goes hand in hand with specialisation. Different workers perform different tasks in the course of producing a good or service.

What is division of labour?
What is trade?

The buying and selling of goods and services.

What is trade?
What is exchange?

To give something in return for something else received. Money is a medium of exchange.

What is exchange?
What is short run?

The time period in which at least one factor of production is fixed and cannot be varied.

What is short run?
What is long run?

The time period in which no factors of production are fixed and in which all the factors of production can be varied.

What is long run?
What is fixed cost?

Cost of production which, in the short run, does not change with output.

What is fixed cost?
What is variable cost?

Cost of precaution which changes with the amount that is produced, even in the short run.

What is variable cost?
What is total cost?

The whole cost (fixed cost + variable cost) of producing a particular level of output.

What is total cost?
What is average cost?

Total cost of production divided by output.

What is average cost?
What is long-run average cost?

Long-run total cost divided by output.

What is long-run average cost?
What is economy of scale?

As output increase, long-run average cost falls.

What is economy of scale?
What is diseconomy of scale?

As output increase, long-run average cost rises.

What is diseconomy of scale?
What is technical economy of scale?

A cost saving generated through changes to the ‘productive process’ as the scale of production and the level of output increases.

What is technical economy of scale?
What is internal economy of scale?

Cost saving resulting from the growth of the firm itself.

What is internal economy of scale?
What is external economy of scale?

Cost saving resulting from the growth of the industry or market of which the firm is a part.

What is external economy of scale?
What is total revenue?

All the money received by a firm form selling its total output.

What is total revenue?
What is average revenue?

Total revenue divided by output; in a single-product firm, average revenue equals the price of the product.

What is average revenue?
What is profit?

The difference between total sales revenue and total cost of production.

What is profit?
Summary of Production, costs and revenue.
  • Production is a process, or set of processes, that converts inputs into outputs.
  • Productivity is measured by output per unit of input per period of time.
  • Labour productivity, or output per worker, is the most commonly used measure of productivity.
  • The division of labour means that different workers do different jobs.
  • The division of labour and specialisation occur together, although specialisation can occur without division of labour.
  • Specialisation and the division of labour require trade and exchange.
  • Money is the main medium of exchange in modern economies though barter still sometimes takes place.
  • Average cost is cost per unit of output.
  • A firm’s short-run average cost curve is typically U-shaped, showing average costs first falling and then rising as output increases.
  • A firm is productively efficient when producing the output that minimises its average cost of production.
  • For the whole economy, all points on the economy’s production possibility frontier are productively efficient.
  • Economies of scale mean that a firm’s average costs rise as the scale or size of the firm increases.
  • There are a number of different types of economy of scale, such as technical economies.
  • Diseconomies of scale mean that a firm’s average costs rise as the scale or size of the firm increases.
  • Economies and diseconomies of scale can be shown on a U-shaped long-run average cost curve, drawn to show average costs changing as the size of the firm increases.
  • External economies and diseconomies of scale result from the growth of the industry rather than from the growth of a firm within the industry.
  • Revenue is the money a firm receives from selling its output.
  • Revenue must not be confused with profit; profit equals total revenue (TR) - total cost (TC).
  • Providing all output is sold at the same price, average revenue is the same as price.
Summary of Production, costs and revenue.
What is signalling function of prices?

Prices provide information to buyers and sellers.

What is signalling function of prices?
What is incentive function of prices?

Prices create incentives for people to alter their economic behaviour; for example a higher price creates and incentive for firms to supply more of a good or service.

What is incentive function of prices?
What is rationing function of prices?

Rising prices ration demand for a product.

What is rationing function of prices?
What is allocative function of prices?

Changing relative prices allocate scarce resources away from markets exhibiting excess supply and into markets in which there is excess demand.

What is allocative function of prices?
What is market failure?

When the market mechanism leads to a misallocation of resources in the economy, either completely failing to provide a good or service or providing the wrong quantity.

What is market failure?
What is missing market?

A situation in which there is no market because the functions of prices have broken down.

What is missing market?
What is private good?

A good, such as an orange, that is excludable and rival.

What is private good?
What is public good?

A good, such as a radio programme, that is non-excludable and non-rival. Often provided by government. Free riding is rife. Can lead to a missing market.

What is public good?
What is quasi-public good?

A good which is not fully non-rival and/or where it is possible to exclude people from consuming the product.

What is quasi-public good?
What is merit good?

Social benefits exceed the private benefits (positive externality). Value judgements involved. Under-consumed. Under-provided. Often subsidised or even supplied by government.

What is merit good?
What is demerit good?

Social costs of consumption exceed the private costs (negative externality). Value judgements involved. Over-consumed. Over-provided. High inelasticity, e.g. cigarettes.

What is demerit good?
What is monopoly power abuse?

Lower quality goods as a result. Wastage of resources. Artificially high prices. Monopoly profits.

What is monopoly power abuse?
What is externality?

A public good in the case of an external benefit, or a public bad, in the case of an external cots, that is ‘dumped’ on third parties.

What is externality?
What is positive externality?

The same as an external benefit, occurs when the consumption or production of a good causes a benefit to a third party, where the social benefit to society is greater than the private benefit (MSB > MPB).

What is positive externality?
What is negative externality?

The same as an external cost, occurs when the consumption or production of a good causes costs to a third party, where the social cost to society is greater than the private cost (MSC > MPC).

What is negative externality?
What is production externality?

An externality (which may be positive or negative) generated in the course of producing a good or service.

What is production externality?
What is consumption externality?

An externality (which may be positive or negative) generated in the course of consuming a good or service.

What is consumption externality?
What is private cost?

The cost of an activity to an individual or firm.

What is private cost?
What is private benefit?

The benefit of an activity to an individual or firm.

What is private benefit?
What is social cost?

The total cost of an activity. Expressed as an equation: social cost = private cost + external cost.

What is social cost?
What is social benefit?

The total benefit of an activity. Expressed as an equation: social benefit = private benefit + external benefit.

What is social benefit?
What is external cost?

The cost of an activity to society.

What is external cost?
What is external benefit?

The benefit of an activity to society.

What is external benefit?
What is subsidy?

A payment made by government or other authority, usually to producers, for each unit of the subsidised good that they produce. Consumers can also be subsidised: for example, bus passes given to children to enable them to travel on buses free or at a reduced price.

What is subsidy?
What is information problem?

Occurs when people make wrong decisions because they don’t possess or they ignore relevant information. Very often they are myopic (short-sighted) about the future.

What is information problem?
What is immobility of labour?

The inability of labour to move from one job to another, either for occupational reasons (e.g. the need for training) or for the geographical reasons (e.g. the cost of moving to another part of the country).

What is immobility of labour?
What is geographical immobility of labour?

Occurs when workers find it difficult or impossible to move to jobs in other parts of the country or in other countries for reasons such as higher housing costs in locations where the jobs exist.

What is geographical immobility of labour?
What is occupational immobility of labour?

Occurs when workers find it difficult or impossible to move between jobs because they lack or cannot development the skills required for the new jobs.

What is occupational immobility of labour?
What is equity?

Fairness or justness.

What is equity?
What is inequity?

Unfairness or unjustness.

What is inequity?
What is distribution of income and wealth?

The way in which income and wealth are divided among the population.

What is distribution of income and wealth?
What is regulation?

Involves the imposition of rules, laws, controls and constraints, which restrict freedom of economic action in the market place.

What is regulation?
What is tax?

A compulsory levy imposed by the government to pay for its activities. Taxes can also be used to achieved other objectives, such as reduced consumption of demerit goods.

What is tax?
What is price ceiling?

A price above which it is illegal to trade. Price ceilings, or maximum legal prices, can distort markets by creating excess demand.

What is price ceiling?
What is price floor?

A price below which it is illegal to trade. Price floors, or minimum legal prices, can distort markets by creating excess supply.

What is price floor?
What is government failure?

Occurs when government intervention reduces economic welfare, leading to an allocation of resources that is worse than the free-market outcome.

What is government failure?
When does market failure occur?

Market failure occurs when the free market fails to allocate scarce resources at the socially optimum level of output.

When does market failure occur?
What are the different types of market failure?
  1. Negative and Positive Externalities - negative and positive impacts on third parties as a result of production or consumption.
    • Self-interest means that both negative and positive impacts won't be accounted for in the free market mechanism; consumers will ignore any impacts on third parties when they consume as they are utility maximisers (they only consider their private benefit) and firms will ignore any impacts on third parties when they produce as they are profit maximisers (they only consider their private cost).
  2. Merit and Demerit Goods - Goods or services that are either worse for us or better for us than we think.
    • Information failure results in consumers making irrational decisions when they consume. This can lead to the allocation of scarce resources being too high or too low.
  3. Public Goods
    • Free Rider Problem and the fact that firms are profit motivated means that public goods may not be supplied.
  4. Common Access Resources - also known as the tragedy of the commons.
    • Self-interest means that common access resources will often be over consumed and over produced and that is because there are negative externalities in the production. (Private producers ignoring these external costs when it comes to producing).
  5. Income Inequality
    • Inequity means unfairness so the problem with income inequality as a source of market failure is that it's going to be someone's opinion as to when income inequality becomes too high in a free market economy.
  6. Monopoly Power - we usually assume in a free market that there are many buyers and sellers and we assume that thee is good information and that there is low or no barriers to entry and exit.
    • One Dominant Seller & High Barriers to Entry gives rise to monopoly power and the end result is that consumers are exploited with higher than socially optimum prices and lower than socially optimum quantities. This leads to a market failure.
  7. Factor Immobility - We assume that when demand shifts right in a market that suppliers can respond and produce extra output responding to the incentive to increase price and make more profit.
    • If producers can't respond or FOP are immobile then we are left with a misallocation of resources. In the labour market, workers may not be perfectly mobile; maybe they are structurally unemployed or are occupationally or geographically immobile. The perfect allocation of labour in a labour market is stopped leading to market failure.
What are the different types of market failure?
Application of Market Failure
Application of Market Failure
Summary of Market failure, government intervention and government failure
  • Prices perform four functions in markets: signalling information; creating economic incentives; and rationing scarce resources between competing uses, and allocation.
  • Market failure, which occurs whenever markets don’t perform very well, divides into complete market failure and partial market failure.
  • Goods divide into private goods, such as a car, defined by the characteristics of excludability and rivalry, and public goods, such as national defence, defined by the characteristics of non-excludability and non-rivalry.
  • In the case of a pure public good, people free-ride by benefiting without paying for the good.
  • Governments often provide public goods directly, arguably because markets fail to supply them.
  • Markets can provide quasi-public goods, such as roads, which are potentially excludable (toll roads) but non-rival, though governments also provide them.
  • Externalities divide into production externalities and. consumption externalities.
  • A negative externality (external cost), such as pollution, is a public ‘bad’ dumped on others.
  • A positive externality (external benefit), such as a beautiful view, is a public good that benefits other
  • Governments use regulations, including prohibition, and taxation to prevent or reduce production of negative externalities and to reduce consumption of demerit goods.
  • Governments use regulations, including compulsory consumption, and subsidies to enforce or encourage production of positive externalities and the consumption of merit goods.
  • Along with public goods, merit goods such as education are often provided by governments.
  • Although both are often provided by the government, a merit good should not be confused with a public good.
  • Merit goods are under-consumed in a free market because consumers ignore the positive externalities that consumption generates and/or downplay the long-term private benefits they will eventually enjoy.
  • Demerit goods are over-consumed in a free market because consumers ignore the negative externalities that consumption generates and/or downplay the long-term private costs they will eventually suffer.
  • Unlike public goods, merit goods are excludable and rival.
  • Governments encourage consumption of merit goods through state provision and subsidy.
  • Governments discourage consumption of demerit goods through regulation and taxation.
  • Governments impose price ceilings or maximum legal prices to prevent prices rising above desired levels.
  • A price ceiling imposed below the free-market price distorts the market and creates excess demand.
  • In this situation, a secondary market or black market is likely to emerge.
  • Black or informal markets can perform the useful economic function of dealing with shortages and equating demand with supply.
  • Governments impose price floors or minimum legal prices, such as the national minimum wage, to prevent prices from falling below desired levels.
  • Government failure occurs when government intervention in markets fails to correct market failure, government failure is associated with a misallocation of resources.
  • Governments may create, rather than remove, market distortions.
  • Government failure can result from government decisions made on the basis of inadequate information; as a result of conflicting objectives; and from the administrative costs of government intervention. It is also associated with the unintended consequences of government intervention in markets.
Summary of Market failure, government intervention and government failure
Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.

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Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
  • ABC
    • Accurate
    • Big
    • Clear
  • ACE
    • Axis
    • Curve
    • Equilibrium
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
Define macroeconomics.

Macroeconomics involves the study of the whole economy at the aggregate level.

Define macroeconomics.
What is a policy objective?

A target or goal that policy-makers aim to ‘hit’.

What is a policy objective?
What is short-run economic growth?

Growth of real output resulting from using idle resources, including labour, thereby taking up slack in the economy.

What is short-run economic growth?
What is long-run economic growth?

An increase in the economy’s potential level of real output, and an outward shift of the economy’s production possibility frontier.

What is long-run economic growth?
What is gross domestic product (GDP)?

The sum of all goods and services, or level of output, produced in the economy over a period of time, e.g. one year.

What is gross domestic product (GDP)?
Define real GDP.

A measure of all the goods and services produced in an economy, adjusted for price changes or inflation. The adjustment transforms changes in nominal GDP, which is measured in money terms, into a measure that reflects changes in the total output of the economy.

Define real GDP.
Define nominal GDP.

GDP measured at the current market prices, without removing the effects of inflation.

Define nominal GDP.
What is a recession?

A fall in real GDP for 6 months or more.

What is a recession?
What is full employment?

According to Beveridge’s definition, full employment means 3% or less of the labour force unemployed. According to the free-market definition, it is the level of employment occurring at the market-clearing real-wage rate, where the number of workers whom employers wish to hire equals the number of workers wanting to work.

What is full employment?
Explain the claimant count.

The method of measuring unemployment according to those people who are claiming unemployment-related benefits (Jobseeker’s Allowance).

Explain the claimant count.
Explain the Labour Force Survey.

A quarterly sample survey ion households in the UK. Its purpose is to provide information on the UK labour market. The survey seeks information on respondents’ personal circumstances and their labour market status during a period of 1-4 weeks.

Explain the Labour Force Survey.
What is inflation?

A persistent or continuing rise in the average price level.

What is inflation?
When does inflation occur?

Inflation occurs where there is a positive output gap - real GDP/AD deviates from the trend GDP/AD.

When does inflation occur?
What does a positive output gap lead to?
  • Positive output gap leads to inflationary pressure as a result of the demand pull (outside the PPF too).
  • High interest rates more likely.
  • Budget surplus/less of a deficit (because of taxes and also more unemployment so less spending on benefits; see below).
  • Closer to full employment
What does a positive output gap lead to?
What does a negative output gap lead to?
  • Increase in imports fall in exports (possibly inflation - better to buy from DE if UK inflation higher).
What does a negative output gap lead to?
What is deflation?

A persistent or continuing fall in the average price level.

What is deflation?
What is disinflation?

When the rate of inflation is falling, but still positive.

What is disinflation?
Explain what a price index is.

An price index is where an index number shows the extent to which a price, or a ‘basket’ of prices, has changed over a month, quarter or year, in comparison with the price(s) in a base year.

Explain what a price index is.
How does the consumer prices index (CPI) measure inflation?

Consumer prices index (CPI) is the official measure used to calculate the rate of consumer price inflation in the UK. The CPI calculates the average price increase of a basket of 700 different consumer goods and services.

How does the consumer prices index (CPI) measure inflation?
How does the retail prices index (RPI) measure inflation?

Retail prices index (RPI) is an older measure used to calculate the rate of consumer price inflation in the UK. Currently, the UK government uses the CPI for the indexation of state pensions and welfare benefits and for setting a monetary policy target, and the RPI for uprating each year the cost of TV and motor vehicle licenses, together sometimes with tax on goods such as alcoholic drinks.

How does the retail prices index (RPI) measure inflation?
What is indexation?

The automatic adjustment of items such as pensions and welfare benefits to changes in the price level, through the use of a price index.

What is indexation?
Define balance of payments.

A record of all the currency flows into and out of a country in a particular time period.

Define balance of payments.
What is the current account of the balance of payments?

Measures all the currency flows into and out of a country flows into and out of a country in a particular time period in payment for exports and imports, together with income and transfer flows.

What is the current account of the balance of payments?
What is meant by the term ‘exports’?

Domestically produced goods or services sold to residents of other countries.

What is meant by the term ‘exports’?
What is meant by the term ‘imports’?

Goods or services produced in other countries and sold to residents of this country.

What is meant by the term ‘imports’?
What is the balance of trade?

The difference between the money value of a country’s imports and its exports. Balance of trade is the largest component of a country’s balance of payments on current account.

What is the balance of trade?
What is a balance of trade deficit?

The money value of a country’s imports exceeds the money value of its exports.

What is a balance of trade deficit?
What is a balance of trade surplus?

The money value of a country's exports exceeds the money value of its imports.

What is a balance of trade surplus?
What is a balanced budget?

When government spending equals government revenue, which is mostly tax revenue.

What is a balanced budget?
What is a budget deficit.

When government spending is greater than government revenue.

What is a budget deficit.
What is a policy conflict?

Occurs when two policy objectives cannot both be achieved at the same time: the better the performance in achieving one objective, the worse the performance in achieving the other.

What is a policy conflict?
Explain the policy objectives of the UK.

Explain the policy objectives of the UK.
Explain what a trade-off between policy objectives.

Although it may be impossible to achieve two desirable objectives at the same time, e.g. zero inflation and full employment, policy-makers may be able to choose an acceptable combination lying between the extremes, e.g. 2% inflation and 4% unemployment.

Explain what a trade-off between policy objectives.
Give 4 examples of policy conflict.
  • Between internal policy objectives of full employment and growth and the external objective of achieving a satisfactory balance of payments (or possibly supporting a particular exchange rate).
    full employment and economic growthpolicy conflict
    ←→
    and trade-off
    satisfactory balance of payments or exchange rates
  • Between achieving full employment and controlling inflation
    full employment and economic growthpolicy conflict
    ←→
    and trade-off
    control of inflation
  • Between increasing the rate of economic growth and achieving a more equal distribution of income and wealth
    economic growthpolicy conflict
    ←→
    and trade-off
    control of inflation
  • Between higher living standards now and and higher living standards in the future
    current living standardspolicy conflict
    ←→
    and trade-off
    future living standards
Give 4 examples of policy conflict.
Who are Keynesian economists?

Followers of the economist John Maynard Keynes, who generally believe that governments should manage the economy, particularly through the use of fiscal policy.

Who are Keynesian economists?
Who are pro-free market economists?

Opponents of Keynesian economists, who dislike government intervention in the economy and who much prefer the operation of free markets.

Who are pro-free market economists?
Define fiscal policy.

The use by the government of government spending and taxation to try to achieve the government’s policy objectives.

Define fiscal policy.
Define monetary policy.

The use by the government and its agent, the Bank of England, of interest rates other monetary instruments to try to achieve the government’s policy objectives.

Define monetary policy.
What is a performance indicator?

A performance indicator provides information for judging the success or failure of a particular type of government policy such as fiscal policy or monetary policy. Lead indicators (future) and lag indicators (past and possibly present).

What is a performance indicator?
What are index numbers?

A number used in an index, such as the consumer prices index, to enable accurate comparisons over time to be made. The base year index number is typically 100. In subsequent years, percentage increases cause the index number to rise above the index number recorded for the previous year, and percentage decreases cause the index number to fall below the index number to fall below the index number recorded for the previous year.

What are index numbers?
Summary of macroeconomic objectives and indicators.
  • A policy objective is a target or goal which a government aims to achieve or 'hit'.
  • The main macroeconomic policy objectives are full employment, economic growth, a fair distribution of income and wealth, control of inflation and a satisfactory balance of payments on current account.
  • Full employment and economic growth are the prime policy objectives, but many pro-free market economists place control of inflation in pole position.
  • Whatever the ranking of policy objectives, improving economic welfare or human happiness is the ultimate policy objective.
  • Sometimes governments have other policy objectives such as balancing the budget and achieving a more equitable distribution of income and wealth.
  • As the name indicates, a performance indicator, such as changes in the level of unemployment, provides information on how the economy is performing.
  • Economic indices are often used by economists to measure changes in economic variables occurring over time.
  • Price indices are especially important in economics, particularly the consumer prices index (CPI) and the retail prices index (RPI).
  • Inflation indices are used when measuring changes in real GDP.
  • A representative sample of goods (sometimes called the national 'shopping basket') and a system of weights are used in the construction of the CPI and RPI.
Summary of macroeconomic objectives and indicators.
Explain aggregate demand (AD).

AD = C + I + G + (X - M)

  • Consumption
  • Investment
  • Government spending
  • Exports
  • Imports
Explain aggregate demand (AD).
What are the 9 factors that influence consumption.
  • Income
  • Interest rates
  • Consumer confidence
  • Average Propensity to Consume (APC)
    • APC=consumptionincome
  • Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) - Lower income households will have a higher MPC: as their incomes rise, they are more likely to spend more.
    • MPC=change in consumptionchange in income
  • Average Propensity to Save (APS)
    • APS=savingsincome
  • Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS)
    • MPS=change in savingschange in income
  • Wealth - particularly house prices and value of shares
  • Inflation - Prices are too high and so no consumption will occur. If inflation is all over the place no consumption as uncertainty.
What are the 9 factors that influence consumption.
What are the 3 factors that influence investment.
  • Interest Rates
  • Business Confidence
  • Cost of capital
What are the 3 factors that influence investment.
What are the 4 factors that influence government spending.
  • Tax revenue
  • Budget/Surplus
  • Governemnt Objectives (e.g. macroeconomic objectives)
  • Election cycle - Approaching an election, governments will typically spend more money to satisfy their existing constituents and other potential constituents, e.g. red wall in UK.
What are the 4 factors that influence government spending.
What are the 4 factors that influence exports and imports.
  • Exchange Rates
  • Protectionism policies (e.g. taxes, tariffs and regulation)
  • Lots of non ER factors incl. Quality, USPS.
  • Relative rate of inflation, e.g. 5% in UK vs 1% in US then US export increase.
What are the 4 factors that influence exports and imports.
What is fiscal policy?
  • Fiscal policy is an example of a demand policy - and so influences AD (an AD diagram).
  • Expansionary policies shift AD right
  • Contractionary policies shift AD left
  • Government spending and taxes are outlined in the budget by the Chancellor of the Exchequer (2021 currently Rishi Sunak).
  • Some fiscal policies have supply side implications.
What is fiscal policy?
What is monetary policy?
What is monetary policy?
What is supply side policy?
What is supply side policy?
Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.

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Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
  • ABC
    • Accurate
    • Big
    • Clear
  • ACE
    • Axis
    • Curve
    • Equilibrium
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
What is utility & marginal utility?

Utility = the satisfaction an individual gains from consuming good/service. Marginal utility = the additional satisfaction gained from consuming one extra unit of a good.

What is utility & marginal utility?
What is the law of diminishing utility?

As quantity consumed increases, marginal utility gained from each extra unit decreases.

What is the law of diminishing utility?
What is imperfect information?

Where info is missing, so an informed decision can't be made - leads to misallocation of resources e.g. consumers pay too much/little, and firms may produce incorrect amount.

What is imperfect information?
What is symmetric information?

Symmetric info is where consumers & producers have perfect info to make their decisions - leads to efficient allocation of resources asymmetric.

What is symmetric information?
What is asymmetric information?

Asymmetric info is where there is unequal knowledge between consumers & producers - leads to misallocation of resources.

What is asymmetric information?
What is behavioural economics?

Disputes idea that consumers are always rational & will always look to maximise utility, instead emotional/social/psychological factors play key role in influencing consumer behaviour e.g. cognitive biases like social norms

What is behavioural economics?
What is Bounded rationality?

Bounded rationality is when making a decision, consumers rationality limited by TIC.

What is Bounded rationality?
What is Bounded self control?

Bounded Self-control is when individual lacks self-control to act in what they see as their self-interests

What is Bounded self control?
What is the difference between Bounded rationality and Bounded self control?

What is the difference between Bounded rationality and Bounded self control?
What is System 1 thinking?

What is System 1 thinking?
What is System 2 thinking?

What is System 2 thinking?
What are the 4 Mental Shortcuts we use in our Decision Making?

Rule of thumb, Anchoring, Availability bias, Social norms.

What are the 4 Mental Shortcuts we use in our Decision Making?
What is the Rule of thumb?

A heuristic is a rule-of-thumb, or a guide toward what behavior is appropriate for a certain situation. Heuristics are also known as "mental shortcuts" (Kahneman, 2011). Such shortcuts can aid us when we face time pressure to decide, or when conditions are complex and our attention is divided.

What is the Rule of thumb?
What is Anchoring?

Human tendency to rely on first piece of info they are given - causes consumers to be biased towards it when subsequent info is given.

What is Anchoring?
What is Availability bias?

Process of an individual making judgements about the likelihood of future events, according to how easy it is to recall similar events.

What is Availability bias?
What are Social norms?

Patterns of behaviour considered socially acceptable within society.

What are Social norms?
What is the Ikea effect.

A scenario in which people place an overly-high value on an object that they have either fully or partially assembled themselves, regardless of the quality of the outcome.

What is the Ikea effect.
What is scarcity bias?

The tendency to value something more if it is thought of as rare.

What is scarcity bias?
What is sunk cost bias?

A tendency to continue a behaviour as result of previously invested resources (time, money or effort) e.g. people may order a large meal and continue to eat even though marginal utility is zero (or perhaps negative!).

What is sunk cost bias?
What is altruism?
  • Altruism directly contradicts the traditional view of self-interested economic man. It means individuals make decision that so not serve their self interest.
  • E.g. voluntary work doesn't maximise utility but a person does derive satisfaction from helping others.
  • Some services are better served through voluntary services, e.g. in the UK giving blood for medical purposes.

Fairness can lead to apparently irrational decision making.

What is altruism?
Explain the difference between altruism and fairness?

Altruism = act of being selfless and considerate towards other people, even if it may cause individual to suffer as consequence e.g. financial loss. Fairness = treating everyone equally - giving time, respect & not taking advantage of them

Explain the difference between altruism and fairness?
What is framing?

Framing a question in a different way often generates a new response by changing the comparison set it is viewed in - small details matter! Altering what information is provided, and it's design can help people make better decisions. People who use narrow framing often draw heavily on automatic/default assumptions.

What is framing?
Examples of framing.

Privacy settings on networks such as Facebook, presumed (deemed) consent for human organ donations to increase the supply of organs, framing of referendum questions, framing of interest paid on loans.

Examples of framing.
What is asymmetric framing?

Involves including an obviously inferior 3rd choice or a hyper-expensive 3rd option rather than a simple expensive/cheap choice can guide consumers to more expensively-price items.

What is asymmetric framing?
What are choice architecture policies?

The way choices are presented to consumers - govt. policy can lead people into making particular choices.

What are choice architecture policies?
Examples of choice architecture policies.

Getting students to eat more healthily might involve altering the design of the school or college restaurant, smart building designs might make it more attractive/easier to take the stairs rather than use a lift, choice architecture is often more effective when it encourages simplicity in the decisions that people have to make and in which the benefits and costs are made clear.

Examples of choice architecture policies.
What are nudges?

Nudges = aim to change behaviour without taking away freedom of choice; iff an individual is free to choose but is exposed to some kind of influence this is called a nudge.

What are nudges?
Why are choice architecture and nudges criticised?

Choice architecture and nudges are criticised because they are seen to interfere with an individuals freedom of choice. However, government policy is to use them if the outcome is desirable. In imperfect markets, rational decisions are not possible anyway since producers are restricting information available to consumers.

Why are choice architecture and nudges criticised?
How are choices are influenced?

Default, restricted and mandated choice.

How are choices are influenced?
What is a default choice?

A default choice is when a decision requires no action on the part of the individual, e.g. for internet browsers, Google is the default search engine. Auto enrolment in pensions.

What is a default choice?
What is a restricted choice?

Restricted choices are given, limiting the individuals of the DVLA does not allow a person applying for a driving license to say no to organ transplant. The options are 1-Yes I would like to register, 2-I do not wish to answer this question now, 3-I am already registered. Here the government is using nudges gain the desired outcome - because yes is more likely to be chosen than no.

What is a restricted choice?
What is a mandated choice?

A mandated choice is when a person is required by law to make a certain decision, e.g. car owners having to take out car insurance.

What is a mandated choice?
Critical evaluation on behavioural nudges.
  1. Behavioural economics give the impression that people are dumb. But using rules of thumb (or heuristics) is seen by many as rational / optimal in a world of complexity.
  2. Nudge theory may be useful in changing minor behaviours in a modest way but less so in addressing deep rooted social problems such as alcoholism, hard drug dependence and street violence
  3. The samples used in testing for psychological biases might be flawed e.g. relying on sampling white, middle class students
  4. Interventions such as taxes, subsidies and regulations are often just as effective as behavioural nudges (e.g. a carbon tax) - they may complement nudges!
  5. Businesses are using nudges to make more profit - a case perhaps for tighter regulating of their targeting of behavioral biases?
  6. Nudges can "wear off" with repetitive use + randomized control tests can be expensive and lengthy.
  7. Practical barriers that may stop some of the ideas from BE from being adopted e.g, behavioural economics may not yet have sufficient policy credibility"
Critical evaluation on behavioural nudges.
What are the costs of privatisation?

What are the costs of privatisation?
What are the benefits of privatisation?

What are the benefits of privatisation?
What are the costs of nationalisation?

What are the costs of nationalisation?
What are the benefits of nationalisation?

What are the benefits of nationalisation?
Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.

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Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.
(My Own Examples) Discuss the view that a national minimum wage is beneficial for an economy. (25 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 17/25 = B+/A grade (68%)

The National Minimum Wage (NMW) is a price floor for the labour market, it is one which employers (that demand labour - labour is derived demand from the demand of the final good) cannot undercut. The NMW can help to reduce relative poverty (60% of median income) which is beneficial. NMW can however increase excess supply in the labour market (unemployment).

One way that the National Minimum Wage (NMW) is beneficial for an economy is in reducing the gender pay gap. In a perfectly competitive labour market, an NMW price floor will force employers to pay their workers at or above a given NMW wage rate (W1 in figure 1). This would reduce the gender pay gap because up to 80% of women work in the typically lower paying core professions. The NMW would therefore see that working women are paid a higher, fairer (equitable) wage rate. In the economy, this would be beneficial as higher wages means that working women have higher disposable incomes and hence are able to purchase more goods and services (more consumption) and therefore an increase in GDP and Aggregate Demand would occur (see figure 2, AD outward shift to AD1). However, an NMW could also lead to unemployment.

One way that the National Minimum Wage (NMW) might not benefit the economy is the fact that it can cause unemployment. The reason is illustrated in figure 3. The excess supply (unemployment) is the shaded area from E1 to E2. The unemployment occurs because with a NMW, firms cannot afford to pay their factors of production at NMW set wage. Unemployment is against the government's macroeconomic objective of full employment. This can cause unemployment in the short run but in the long run firms may actually be able to afford NMW wages rates. This could be as a result of more consumption by workers that are earning more as a result of the NMW.

The National Minimum Wage may not be beneficial for the economy as it could result in inflation. This is because at price floor of W1 (figure 1) firms will have higher total (TC) and average (AC) costs. This results in higher prices because of the cost-push inflation. This inflation is against the UK governments inflation targets (macro objectives). Cost push inflation would have more of an effect in LR than SR.

The National Minimum Wage may be beneficial to the economy as it reduces the gender pay gap and increases AD/GDP. However, this depends on the level of unemployment and inflation which occurs as a result, this is not beneficial for the economy.

WWW: Well structured! Clearly adresses the question set! Good clear points.EBI: See notes on work. Just a few 'jumps'. Evaluation - Explain your depends on + why it depends on that.

Original

(My Own Examples) Discuss the view that a national minimum wage is beneficial for an economy. (25 marks)
(A* Student Exemplars) Discuss if large firms in the UK are more efficient than small firms. (25 marks)

(A* Student Exemplars) Discuss if large firms in the UK are more efficient than small firms. (25 marks)
(StuDocu) Evaluate the Impact of Government intervention in the cigarette market (25 marks)

The cigarette market is one which causes much controversy around it’s impacts that it brings about for the economy. It is argued often that the negative effects bought about by having such a market often exceed the positive ones. For example It is quite well known that the price elasticity of demand for cigarettes is inelastic and thus the incidence of tax is borne by consumers more so than by the firms that produce the cigarettes themselves thus, in this way the consumption of cigarettes by individuals is seen as generating greater revenue for the government however the negative externalities bought about by the consumption of cigarettes i.e passive smoking, is shown to have a considerable burden on the NHS and the number of smoking-related admissions has increased year on year, treatment is costly per admission and thus the overall costs of treatment on the NHS may exceed the extra revenue bought in from the consumption of cigarettes. This is just one controversial issue facing the cigarette market not just in the UK but worldwide.

[Negative externality diagram]

Cigarettes contain tobacco which is essentially addictive and thus user find themselves compelled to purchase more and more hence the reason for cigarettes being demand inelastic (PED -0.35) this essentially means that at higher prices demand is not as responsive to the change in price.There are many habitual users who regardless of the cost continue to purchase cigarettes. The price of a packet of 20 cigarettes ranges from £7.70 to £9.50. This price is relative to consumers income however generally it is seen as quite expensive especially to those from a low-income background. People from lower classes who smoke are hit the hardest by the cost of the cigarettes and when the government implements higher taxes on cigarettes this has the greatest effect on lower-income backgrounds. Government intervention on cigarettes ultimately arises for two reasons, one of which may be to generate extra revenue for the government, this additional revenue can then be spent in areas which need to be improved upon e.g infrastructure, schooling the police force. The second reason for intervention is to try and reduce the negative effects especially to one’s health of smoking. In the passage it states that ‘Tobacco taxes are the most cost- effective way to reduce tobacco use, especially among the young and people in low-income groups. A tax increase that raises tobacco prices by 10 percent decreases tobacco consumption by 4 percent in high income countries and 5 percent in low and middle income countries’. Although this statistic shows a positive outcome initially, in the long term it is dependent on how far addicted each individual is to tobacco as stated before cigarettes have a relatively inelastic demand so in the short term higher prices may deter people consuming only for so long. However in the long term taxation is not as efficient an approach as consumers will continue purchasing cigarettes due to their addictive nature.

[Unresponsive demand diagram inelastic]

Government intervention on cigarettes is not just through taxation, cigarette packets now show graphic photos of the harmful consequences on smoking, many are labelled with negative slogans of what ultimately may happen in the long term if you continue smoking however again due to the addictive nature of tobacco in cigarettes this has not proven that effectively. Compared with taxation though there has been some positive outcome in this scheme in which numbers have shown that their has been an increase in smokers wanting to quit and phoning up helplines. Statistics show that 8 million people are expected to die each year by 2030 because they have smoked tobacco or been exposed to passive smoking. This statistic can be seen in two ways one of which is there will be a greater loss of revenue to the government from this, the second is that this statistic can be used to show younger generations of the effects of smoking in the hope that it may deter them from the consumption of cigarettes later on in life. The introduction of e-cigarettes on the market is seen as equally controversial to the use of traditional tobacco cigarettes. Nowadays we see e-cigarettes being marketed and advertised almost everywhere, it’s prominence and use has risen through the years especially in the early 2000s. E-cigarettes boast about helping smokers to eventually cut their ties with traditional tobacco cigarettes and boast better health benefits when consuming them, however the likelihood of this is uncertain as their is no real scientific evidence to back up this claim. The nicotine dispensed by the e-cigarettes is very addictive and although e-cigarettes give off the impression that they have less of a profound effect on your health than a traditional cigarette, the use of e-cigarettes may eventually lead individuals into smoking normal cigarettes and so in the long term this approach may backfire. However it could be the case that the government could effectively back e-cigarette consumption in the hope that traditional smokers will switch to this method however the unintended consequences are unknown and so this measure would prove ineffective. The price of e-cigarette kits range from £9.99-19.99 and the price elasticity of demand is -1.9 making the product relatively more price elastic than tobacco cigarettes this means that tax would have little effect on consumers and more of an effect on firms meaning that revenue is drawn in through taxing traditional cigarettes more than e-cigarettes.

In conclusion, government intervention in the cigarette market may prove ineffective through various different approaches in trying to reduce the number of people smoking i.e through taxation due to the addictive nature of the cigarette and the fact that this means that cigarettes have an inelastic demand. Again the government has banned smoking in the UK in public places in attempt to reduce second hand smoking but passive smoking related admissions to hospitals are on the rise and the costs to the NHS are far greater than the revenue bought in through taxation. Due to the addictive nature of tobacco individuals may find it very hard to come off them and with any addiction this is deemed true thus the government may find it helpful to target early intervention with more of an emphasis on educating younger generations in schools for example. From studies today, it is shown that early intervention is key to overcoming addition and thus if the government aims their campaigns towards the younger generations this could prevent many people from starting up smoking, by showing what profound effects smoking has towards a younger audience may deter any consumption of tobacco products however the government must take into account the admin costs of enforcing these campaigns as if the costs are too high and it turns out that the campaign proved ineffective this is wasted funding and could be put towards better use at trying to deter individuals from smoking. Furthermore government intervention could distort market prices and thus eventually lead to market failure where black markets although already around in the tobacco industry can become more prominent and start to cause greater problems thus the government must be careful in that sense so as not to disrupt market pricing too much. The best approach would to be to target campaigns towards younger audiences however their is only so much the government can do and the addictive nature of this product as with any additive product proves further of a barrier in trying to target individuals to stop smoking.

Original

(StuDocu) Evaluate the Impact of Government intervention in the cigarette market (25 marks)
(ECON3 2013 A Grade) Question 3 ‘...any negative economic effects of trade unions are outweighed by the positive effects of trade union activities on wages, discrimination and exploitation’ (Extract C, lines 21-23). Using the data and your economic knowledge, evaluate whether governments, such as those of the UK and China, should intervene in labour markets to increase trade union membership. (25 marks)

~A grade essay

  • Legend
  • Definitions (D)
  • Knowledge (Kn), for example of economic events or data
  • Issue (I) - A relevant issue or point is raised. This is often in the first sentence of a paragraph.
  • Application (Ap) - Applying the information in the extract, or knowledge of economic events or data, to help support the answer to the question.
  • Analysis (An) - The use of relevant economic theory in answering the question, building up logical chains of reasoning.
  • Evaluation (E) - Making judgements about the significance of particular factors, especially in providing a final answer to the question. Evaluation should be supported by relevant economic theory, information from the extract or the candidate's own knowledge

Trade unions are organisation which workers join in a bid to improve pay and working conditions. Unions replace ‘individual bargaining’ with ‘collective bargaining’ (Extract B, Line 12), and work because when negotiating with their employer as a group workers become more powerful than they would be if acting alone.

The claim that governments should intervene in labour markets to increase trade union membership holds good only if market failure is present to justify intervention in the labour market. It could be argued, for example, that low wages paid to some workers in competitive labour markets constitute an unfair outcome and that market forces create a lack of equity. This is contentious and matters of fairness are a highly normative issue. The question of what is fair and unfair in the distribution of income cannot be settled through economic analysis. Nevertheless, it is widely accepted in developed countries that the distribution of income should not be determined entirely by market forces. This provides justification for redistribution of income through taxes and benefits. It may also provide a reason for governments to intervene in markets to encourage union membership. This poses a question as to which method of lessening inequality is the best to pursue.

Trade union membership can raise wages for low paid workers. “Union members earn on average nearly 17% more than other workers (Extract B, line 19) as the union may act as a monopoly supplier of labour.Its power to raise wages tends to be greatest when there is a ‘closed shop’ such that all workers in a particular profession have to be a member of the same union, although closed shop agreements are illegal in the UK. Union power is also raised by inelastic labour demand. When unions act to raise wages, there will be some workers rendered unemployed because the wage is raised above their marginal revenue product, meaning that profit-maximising firms will not want to employ them. This contraction of labour demand is not so great when demand for labour is inelastic. To raise the wage, the union restricts the supply of labour and effectively imposes a minimum wage in the labour market. This situation and the resulting unemployment are shown in the diagram below.

Diagram - Trade unions may raise wages at the expense of causing unemployment

The possibility of unions causing unemployment is one reason why governments should think carefully before encouraging union membership. Trade unions are meant to help to improve the living standards of workers, but this cannot be said to be the case for those who are made unemployed.

It should be noted, however, that the case for union membership is stronger when a monopsonist is present in the labour market. Monopsonists use their power as the sole buyer of a particular type of labour to drive down wages, and such power can be countered by trade unions without causing unemployment. This is because trade unions can reduce the marginal cost to the monopsonist of employing an extra worker. Ordinarily, a monopsonist has to pay a higher wage to attract an extra worker and must pay this higher wage to all other workers as well, meaning that the cost exceeds the wage paid to the additional worker. By effectively imposing a minimum wage on the market, the union turns the firm into a wage taker, such that the marginal cost of employing an extra worker is only his wage. In this situation, unions may raise not only wages but employment.

While cases of pure monopsony are rare, it is true that there are many labour markets in which some employers are large enough to exercise some influence over wage rates. Wherever the pay is lower than the marginal revenue product of the last worker it can be said that some monopsony power exists. If a degree of monopsony power is widespread in the labour market this strengthens the case for government intervention to support union membership. This suggests a role for the government in researching the extent to which workers are paid less than their marginal revenue products.

It should also be noted that some trade unions act in partnership with firms to produce outcomes which are in the interests of both workers and firms. It could be argued that the interests of workers and their employers are well aligned as when the company is profitable it helps to protect the jobs of workers. It is possible that unions might be able to achieve higher wages for their workers by signing productivity deals. If wages are raised in line with productivity, unit labour costs do not increase and this means that jobs are protected. The firm is able to remain at least as competitive as it was previously, more so if productivity has increased faster than wages.

If this nature of union activity as partnership with the firm can be encouraged, there may be a strong case for governments to intervene to increase union membership. Otherwise there is a danger that unions are seen by firms and governments as simply raising the costs of production. Any increase in wages is then seen as being to the detriment of the firm. This explains why “some large companies have adopted an anti-union strategy in the countries in which they operate” (Extract C, Line 5).

A further argument for encouraging union membership is that unions can help to protect vulnerable groups of workers from discrimination and exploitation. This argument might be applied to members of minority groups or women, especially in some developing countries. Such workers might be paid a lower wage because employers perceive their marginal products to be lower than they actually are, or simply because cultural values make it possible to pay lower wages and thereby to reduce production costs. By standing up for the rights of workers, it is possible that union activity can reduce such discrimination.

Evaluation/Final judgement

In final judgement, the case for governments intervening to encourage union membership relies crucially on the claim that low wages constitute a market failure; this is a claim that cannot be settled by economic analysis. It also leaves open the possibility that there might be superior methods to close the gaps between the better and less well off in society. These might include redistribution through the tax and benefit system, although this itself carries drawbacks such as a possible detrimental effect on incentives. By raising the pay of low paid workers, union activity should improve the incentive to work rather than diminish it.

It might also be suggested that the case for increasing union membership may differ in value according to the country to which it is applied. Wages in China are often very low and may fail to meet even basic needs and some would argue this strengthens the case for union activity, but with unions who act for the workers not under the direction of the government as appears to be the case with the ACFTU in the extract. This said, the cultural basis for seeing unions and firms as partners, which could lead to productivity deals to the benefit of both parties, may not exist in China.

In the UK, although wages are generally higher and absolute poverty is not such a concern as in China, there is still considerable inequality, with a Gini coefficient which has risen since union powers were curtailed in the 1980s. It is doubtful whether such large scale inequality is a good thing. On this basis, governments should give careful consideration to measures to reduce inequality. Encouraging union activity is one way in which this could be done, but care should be taken to ensure that any increase in wages goes hand in hand with increases in productivity so that the competitiveness of UK firms is not damaged. This view is supported by the UK’s current need for export led growth. This would become more difficult to achieve if the cost of labour was raised unduly in the UK relative to other countries.

Original

Mark Scheme

(ECON3 2013 A Grade) Question 3 ‘...any negative economic effects of trade unions are outweighed by the positive effects of trade union activities on wages, discrimination and exploitation’ (Extract C, lines 21-23). Using the data and your economic knowledge, evaluate whether governments, such as those of the UK and China, should intervene in labour markets to increase trade union membership. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 1
  • Question 1 - Using the data in Extract A (Figure 1), calculate the three-firm concentration ratio in the UK parcels delivery market. Give your answer, as a percentage, to one decimal place. (2 marks)
  • Question 2 - Explain how the data in Extract A (Figure 2) show that the UK parcels delivery market is displaying dynamic efficiency. (4 marks)
  • Question 3 - Extract B (lines 12-14) states that ‘The Universal Postal Service obligations require Royal Mail to deliver letters and parcels to all parts of the country six days a week’. With the help of a monopoly diagram, explain how the Universal Postal Service obligations are likely to affect Royal Mail’s costs and profits. (9 marks)
  • Question 4 - Extract C (line 2) states that ‘Many competitors are using digital technology to drive innovation’. Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to assess whether the benefits outweigh the costs when the Government privatises organisations such as Royal Mail and opens up the market to competition. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 1
(June 2017) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A (Figure 1), calculate the three-firm concentration ratio in the UK parcels delivery market. Give your answer, as a percentage, to one decimal place. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For the correct answer to one decimal place.
  • For the correct answer without the % sign and/or not to one decimal place.

Students were required to calculate the 3-firm concentration ratio in the UK parcels delivery market. It was pleasing to see that the significant majority was able to do so and earned 2 marks. Inevitably a few students omitted the ‘%’ sign and earned only 1 mark. However, it was disappointing to see that almost 14% of students earned 0 marks. For some this was as a result of including the figure for ‘Other’ in the calculation, whilst others had simply added the % shares of the top three firms inaccurately. Students should be reminded that they are expected to have acquired competence in quantitative skills that are relevant to the subject content.

(June 2017) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A (Figure 1), calculate the three-firm concentration ratio in the UK parcels delivery market. Give your answer, as a percentage, to one decimal place. (2 marks)
(June 2017) Question 2 Explain how the data in Extract A (Figure 2) show that the UK parcels delivery market is displaying dynamic efficiency. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that the UK parcels delivery market is displaying dynamic efficiency.
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that the UK parcels delivery market is displaying dynamic efficiency.

Relevant issues include:

  • Explanation of the concept of dynamic efficiency.
  • Revenue per employee has grown from approximately £160,000 in 2008 to £290,000 in 2014.
  • The number of employees in the sector has fallen from approximately 58,000 in 2008 to 47 000 in 2014.
  • These trends suggest that each employee has become more productive over time.
  • Explanation of how this is likely to have been caused by improvements in technology, organisation, investments in capital.

For the new 4 mark questions (questions 2 and 6) students needed to demonstrate that they understand how the data provided supports a particular proposition. There is no set way to answer these questions, and generally it was pleasing to see that many students had been taught how to approach them.Here students needed to explain how the data showed that the delivery market displayed dynamic efficiency. Whilst a definition of dynamic efficiency was not essential, it was helpful to support the data that the students chose to use, which might otherwise have suggested ‘cost-cutting’, for example. In addition to a definition or brief explanation of dynamic efficiency, the best answers used the data effectively by identifying the general trends, and using a selection of supporting statistics. Occasionally the quoted statistics were incorrect, as the students misread the key and / or the axis. However, overall, many were able to explain that fewer employees, combined with a greater revenue per employee, suggested an improvement in capital / technology over time.

(June 2017) Question 2 Explain how the data in Extract A (Figure 2) show that the UK parcels delivery market is displaying dynamic efficiency. (4 marks)
(June 2017) Question 3 Extract B (lines 12-14) states that ‘The Universal Postal Service obligations require Royal Mail to deliver letters and parcels to all parts of the country six days a week’. With the help of a monopoly diagram, explain how the Universal Postal Service obligations are likely to affect Royal Mail’s costs and profits. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • A monopoly diagram is required. The monopoly diagram could show two average cost curves, with one indicating the higher level of average costs for Royal Mail operating under the UPS obligations and the other (lower) one indicating the lower average costs if the UPS was not present.
  • The diagram could show the different profits made under the two scenarios, either by shading, or by labelling as above (rectangle ACFD represents profits without UPS, whereas BCFE represents profits with UPS).
  • Click to view the Suggested Diagram

Relevant issues include:

  • Definitions of monopoly, costs, profits
  • Explanation of what the UPS is (6 days a week delivery to all addresses in the UK)
  • Explain that only Royal Mail has the UPS obligation, so there is an unfair market, where competitors can "cherry pick" the most profitable geographic areas or types of business
  • Larger fleet of vehicles, greater number of staff, more mail depots are all required to provide the necessary scale for delivery to all addresses
  • Increased time and costs of delivering to rural areas
  • Explanation of how higher average costs tend to lead to lower profits

Note:

  • Some candidates might also consider how the UPS obligations might affect Royal Mail’s variable and hence marginal costs. If reasonable, such an approach should be rewarded.
  • Other approaches to the question and related diagrams should be rewarded.

In the new 9 mark questions (questions 3 and 7) students are instructed to use a diagram to help them to answer the question.In this question students needed to use a monopoly diagram to help them explain how the UPS obligations were likely to affect Royal Mail’s costs and profits. Most rightly assumed that the obligations would lead to an increase in costs and therefore a reduction in profits. The majority were able to include an accurate ‘static’ monopoly diagram to support their answer. It was pleasing to see that a few were able to use the diagram ‘dynamically’, and shift the AC curve and sometimes the MC curve, though this was not necessary to earn full marks. However, it was disappointing to see some elementary mistakes on diagrams, such as the so-called ‘profit- maximisation’ level of output not occurring where MR=MC, or the price not being taken from the AR curve.In the best answers students had clearly used the data to identify the UPS obligations, they successfully integrated this and the diagram into their response to help them explain the impact on costs and profits, using well-focused, logical analysis. Whilst an ‘unused’ diagram represents application of economics to the given context, once it is explained and used in the response it forms part of the chain of reasoning.It should be noted for this question that some students did not answer as anticipated. Rather, they suggested plausibly that delivering six days per week might enable the firm to benefit from greater economies of scale and would therefore lead to lower average costs. Such responses were considered to be valid and were rewarded accordingly.

(June 2017) Question 3 Extract B (lines 12-14) states that ‘The Universal Postal Service obligations require Royal Mail to deliver letters and parcels to all parts of the country six days a week’. With the help of a monopoly diagram, explain how the Universal Postal Service obligations are likely to affect Royal Mail’s costs and profits. (9 marks)
(June 2017) Question 4 Extract C (line 2) states that ‘Many competitors are using digital technology to drive innovation’. Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to assess whether the benefits outweigh the costs when the Government privatises organisations such as Royal Mail and opens up the market to competition. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Explanation of privatisation and deregulation
  • The arguments in favour of privatisation in general
    • Efficiency
    • Investment
    • Greater responsiveness to customer needs
    • Adoption of best practice (including from foreign firms)
    • Building a shareholder culture
    • One-off impact on public finances
  • The arguments against privatisation in general
    • Higher prices due to monopoly/oligopoly power
    • Reduced quality of service
    • Reduced consistency of service
    • Greater risk of externalities
    • Difficulties in identifying the true value of state-owned assets at time of privatisation
    • Costs incurred in the regulation of newly privatised industries
    • Impact on employees and trade unions
  • The arguments for and against introducing competition alongside privatisation
  • Impact on customer service quality, reliability and punctuality
  • Impact on customer price
  • Profitability of private operators
  • Impact on technological innovation and dynamic efficiency
  • Value for money for the taxpayer, perhaps with reference to the criticisms of the Government’s handling of the sale of Royal Mail.
  • Impact on workers’ job security, pay and conditions
  • Regulation of Royal Mail - the split model of competition in parcels but virtually a monopoly in letters allows for comparisons to be made about the different approaches
  • Reference to the fact that letter collection is more competitive than letter delivery, and the problems faced by Whistl in attempting to enter the latter market
  • Alternatives to nationalisation and privatisation: such as contracting out, subsidies
  • The possibility of government failure, either in running a nationalised post service, or in organising the privatisation process
  • Market failure arguments.

Here students needed to use the extracts and their knowledge to assess whether the benefits outweigh the costs when organisations such as Royal Mail are privatised and markets are opened up to competition. This question was clearly very accessible to many students who were able to identify the costs and benefits of privatisation, though not all dealt with the ‘opened up to competition’. However, it was generally well-answered. Many students recognised the need to use the data in the extracts as part of their application skills, but in the better answers the data prompts were effectively integrated with the theoretical analysis. This helped to bring the theory to life, and to support valid and sensible conclusions. Some of the best answers picked up on the words ‘such as’ from the question, and brought in their own examples and context from, say, the railway and water industries to support their evaluation. In the context of Royal Mail, a small minority was able to distinguish between the parcels and letters delivery markets.As always, in the very best answers, students demonstrated their evaluation skills throughout the response, for example by making judgements on the significance and importance of arguments as they progressed, before coming to their final judgement. Generally with the 25 mark questions, in order to achieve a level 5 response, the evaluation should be supported by theoretical analysis and also by the use of data from the extracts and the students’ own examples and contexts. The latter is really only obtained when students take an interest in real world issues, and this plays a huge role in enriching their answers.

(June 2017) Question 4 Extract C (line 2) states that ‘Many competitors are using digital technology to drive innovation’. Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to assess whether the benefits outweigh the costs when the Government privatises organisations such as Royal Mail and opens up the market to competition. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 2
  • Question 5 - Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate the mean female labour force participation rate for the five countries listed. Give your answer to one decimal place. (2 marks)
  • Question 6 - Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 4) show that the degree of inequality between the pay of male and female workers is falling. (4 marks)
  • Question 7 - Extract E (lines 22-23) states that ‘The tendency for women to participate in low-productivity sectors is now a bigger factor in their low pay than discrimination’. With the help of a diagram, explain how the difference between the marginal revenue product of male and female workers might account for the lower average earnings of women. (9 marks)
  • Question 8 - Extract F (lines 19-20) notes that ‘The UK Government recognises the need to raise aspirations and attainment for girls’. Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to evaluate the policies that government might use to reduce the gender pay gap. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 2
(June 2017) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate the mean female labour force participation rate for the five countries listed. Give your answer to one decimal place. (2 marks)

See Question 1.

Students were required to calculate the mean female labour force participation rate for the five countries listed, and most were able to do so accurately. However, a greater number than with question 1, over 16%, compared to 4% on question 1, earned only 1 mark as they failed to include the ‘%’ sign. Fewer earned 0 marks, and this was usually as a result of a calculation error, though some used the OECD average as part of their calculation. Students should be reminded that there are no marks available for workings on the calculation questions.

(June 2017) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate the mean female labour force participation rate for the five countries listed. Give your answer to one decimal place. (2 marks)
(June 2017) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 4) show that the degree of inequality between the pay of male and female workers is falling. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that the degree of inequality between the pay of male and female workers is falling.
  • Clearly explains how the data show that the degree of inequality between the pay of male and female workers is falling.

Relevant issues include:

  • Explanation of the degree of inequality / gender pay gap
  • evidence that women are paid less than men, but this percentage is increasing over the period (70.1% in 2000, 78.1% in 2008, 80.7% in 2015)
  • Evidence that women’s pay has risen 65.6% over the period, but men’s has risen by only 43.7%.
  • Credit should be given to candidates who quote changes in absolute differences (e.g. £6238 in 2000 £5763 in 2015) in male and female earnings, but to earn 4 marks they should recognise that the ‘degree of inequality’ is measured by the relative pay of male and female workers, as indicated for example, by bullet points 2 and 3

Generally this question was well answered, and most students were able to explain how the data showed that the degree of inequality between male and female workers was falling. A number of students explained the meaning of the degree of inequality to help them answer the question, though overall they appeared to find the link between the data and the proposition easier to explain than those answering question 2. In order to earn 4 marks students were expected to use relative differences from the data rather than absolute figures.

(June 2017) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 4) show that the degree of inequality between the pay of male and female workers is falling. (4 marks)
(June 2017) Question 7 Extract E (lines 22-23) states that ‘The tendency for women to participate in low-productivity sectors is now a bigger factor in their low pay than discrimination’. With the help of a diagram, explain how the difference between the marginal revenue product of male and female workers might account for the lower average earnings of women. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • A labour market diagram is expected, showing two different demands for labour/MRPL curves representing productivity differentials between men and women.

Relevant issues include:

  • Explanation of MRPL / MPP
  • Relationship between marginal productivity and the demand for labour
  • Why labour productivity is likely to affect the wage rate
  • Women are more likely to work in so-called ‘lower productivity industries’, such as the care sector, than men
  • The tendency of men to work in occupations where marginal revenue is higher
  • Women tend to be under-represented in more senior roles in many organisations
  • Some employers may perceive women as less productive than their male counterparts within the same firms/roles, for reasons such as time out of work to have children, discrimination, physical attributes, working hours inflexibility, etc. In sectors where physical productivity is hard to measure, employer perceptions will be critical to labour demand.

Students needed to use a diagram to help them explain how the difference between male and female MRP might account for the lower average earnings of women. Good answers began with an explanation of MRP and often explained its relationship with the demand for labour and productivity. There was a number of prompts in the data to help students answer the question, however, it was perfectly acceptable for them to bring in their own factors, and then to develop one or more of these. As before, in the best answers the diagram was properly integrated into the response and formed part of the chain of reasoning. Some students strayed from the focus of the question and discussed supply factors which were not relevant. It was clear also that unfortunately, some students had attempted this question without having an understanding of MRP. This led to a greater number of level 1 answers than was seen on the corresponding Context 1 question.

(June 2017) Question 7 Extract E (lines 22-23) states that ‘The tendency for women to participate in low-productivity sectors is now a bigger factor in their low pay than discrimination’. With the help of a diagram, explain how the difference between the marginal revenue product of male and female workers might account for the lower average earnings of women. (9 marks)
(June 2017) Question 8 Extract F (lines 19-20) notes that ‘The UK Government recognises the need to raise aspirations and attainment for girls’. Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to evaluate the policies that government might use to reduce the gender pay gap. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • What is meant by the UK gender pay gap
  • How the pay gap has evolved over time
  • Significance of UK gender pay gap compared with other countries
  • How supporting trade unions can reduce the wage gap, noting female union membership is already higher than male, and yet the pay gap persists
  • Higher wages through collective bargaining
  • The declining significance of unions in general
  • Discussion of how the government would actually encourage women to join unions and whether that is an appropriate policy for government to pursue
  • Supporting women in the workplace through, eg training, working conditions, encouraging women to be ambitious (see Extract F)
  • Analysis and assessment of increasing National Minimum Wage rates
  • Analysis and assessment of increasing female labour force participation
  • Legislating for boardroom quotas, as seen in Norway, as a way to promote aspiration and break the ‘glass ceiling’
  • Other policies to promote aspiration amongst females, and break down traditional social norms with respect to, eg school/degree subject choices
  • UK policy of forcing firms to disclose pay gaps
  • Tougher penalties for firms discriminating against women
  • Impact of policy intervention on wage costs
  • The case against further intervention, or even reducing existing interventions, to allow market forces in the labour market to reduce the pay gap
  • Evaluation of how much the pay gap is actually a problem that needs to be addressed

In this question students needed to use the extracts and their knowledge to evaluate policies that government might use to reduce the gender pay gap. The best answers discussed at least two policies in depth, where the students drew from the data and successfully integrated this with economic analysis. This helped to provide sensible, supported evaluation and allowed students to reach realistic conclusions. In weaker responses there was a tendency for students to merely ‘list’ policies suggested by the prompts in the data. Here they appeared to find it difficult to develop their answers, and consequently some responses lacked theoretical analysis. Hence there was a number of rather ‘general’ responses, where the students had been unable to demonstrate their knowledge and understanding of economics.

(June 2017) Question 8 Extract F (lines 19-20) notes that ‘The UK Government recognises the need to raise aspirations and attainment for girls’. Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to evaluate the policies that government might use to reduce the gender pay gap. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 1
  • Question 9 - Explain how price and output are determined for a firm in a monopolistically competitive market, in both the short run and the long run. (15 marks)
  • Question 10 - Evaluate the view that government regulation of monopolistically competitive markets is unecessary, and that policies to encourage competition and prevent the abuse of monopoly power should focus entirely on oligopolies and monopolies. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 1
(June 2017) Question 9 Explain how price and output are determined for a firm in a monopolistically competitive market, in both the short run and the long run. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Features of monopolistically competitive market including differentiated products, spare capacity, some influence over price, good information, no barriers to entry or exit, many producers and consumers
  • Pricing decisions are made independently of rivals’ strategies
  • Short-run analysis explaining how firms set quantity by profit maximising (MC=MR), and the price they charge can be worked out from the AR curve. This leads to a degree of abnormal profit assuming AC<AR
  • In the long run rival firms have an opportunity to enter the market, given absence of barriers to entry. This results in the existing firm’s demand curve shifting left. The firms still profit maximise, but this is now at a lower level of output, where abnormal profit is likely to be lower/eliminated

In this question students needed to explain how price and output were determined for a firm in a monopolistically competitive market in both the short and long run. For students who had been taught and had learned this new area of the specification this was a very straightforward question.However, given that only 12% of students attempted Essay 1, we can assume that many felt less confident about this topic. That said, of the three 15 mark questions, the greatest proportion of students earned a level 3 mark for this question. Good answers began by explaining the characteristics of monopolistically competitive markets, which gave students the opportunity to develop sound knowledge and understanding. They went on to use both the short run and long run diagrams, and this helped them to develop their analysis further, and move into the highest level on the mark scheme. As is always the case, answers were enhanced by real world examples of monopolistically competitive markets, but few students included examples. Unfortunately, some students confused monopolistic competition with monopoly and were therefore unlikely to be awarded marks.

(June 2017) Question 9 Explain how price and output are determined for a firm in a monopolistically competitive market, in both the short run and the long run. (15 marks)
(June 2017) Question 10 Evaluate the view that government regulation of monopolistically competitive markets is unecessary, and that policies to encourage competition and prevent the abuse of monopoly power should focus entirely on oligopolies and monopolies. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Features of monopolistically competitive industries and examples
  • Features of oligopolistic industries and examples
  • Features of monopoly industries and examples
  • The objectives of government regulators - efficiency/fairness/safety/transparency/political objectives
  • The view that regulators should focus on making markets (in whatever form) contestable, and not worry about the number of firms in the market
  • Reference to the fact that monopolistically competitive sectors have very low barriers to entry so are likely to be highly contestable
  • Monopolistic competition: picking up on the question’s reference to excessive advertising spending (much of which is of little social benefit), excessive product differentiation and choice for consumers (too much choice?)
  • Examples of successful/unsuccessful regulatory interventions
  • The ability of markets to reduce information asymmetries via, eg review websites, product testing websites
  • The need for oligopoly regulation - anti-cartel investigation and enforcement, increasing competition via breaking up incumbents or encouraging start-ups or international competitors
  • Reference to The Competition and Markets Authority and sectoral regulators such as Ofgem and Ofwat
  • Different approaches to the regulation of monopolies
  • Allocative/productive/dynamic efficiency/X-inefficiency
  • Issues related to consumer/producer surplus
  • Issues related to economies of scale or natural monopolies
  • The different types of government regulation - economic/health & safety/consumer rights, etc
  • Market failure arguments
  • Government failure arguments.

Here students needed to evaluate the view that regulation of monopolistically competitive markets was unnecessary, and that regulative policies should focus entirely on oligopolies and monopolies. Students were able to use a number of approaches to successfully answer this question. Many began with an explanation of monopolistically competitive markets in both the short run and the long run, and of these a significant majority suggested that regulation was indeed unnecessary. A few picked up on the ‘stem’ to the question and suggested that excessive advertising spending might be considered a waste of resources, yet this still did not require regulation. Their focus then switched to monopoly and oligopoly markets and they suggested why regulation might be necessary. As before, the best answers integrated real world examples and contexts with well- focused analysis to support their arguments and evaluation. For example, some students suggested that whilst oligopoly markets such as energy might need regulation others such as the supermarket industry do not. In respect of oligopoly some students included the kinked demand curve seemingly as a matter of course without questioning its relevance or purpose. Students should be reminded that in order to be effective, diagrams need to be explained and properly integrated into their responses.

(June 2017) Question 10 Evaluate the view that government regulation of monopolistically competitive markets is unecessary, and that policies to encourage competition and prevent the abuse of monopoly power should focus entirely on oligopolies and monopolies. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 2
  • Question 11 - Explain the main causes of poverty in the UK. (15 marks)
  • Question 12 - To what extent can the problem of poverty in the UK be solved through the operation of market forces? Justify your answer. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 2
(June 2017) Question 11 Explain the main causes of poverty in the UK. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Distinction between absolute and relative poverty
  • Measures of absolute and relative poverty in the UK
  • Drawing a distinction between wealth and income poverty
  • Drawing a distinction between poverty before/and after housing costs
  • Increasing tendency for those in poverty to be in work as a result of
    • Low productivity and thus wages
    • Low skills
    • Flexible labour markets and lower trade union power
    • Issues with the tax and benefit system - the poverty trap
  • Reasons why out-of-work people may be in relative poverty - the unemployment trap
  • Connections between the economic cycle and relative poverty
  • Child poverty.

This question required students to explain the main causes of poverty, and it should have been a very straightforward question. It was perhaps surprising that Essay 2 was only attempted by 11% of students. However, whilst many students started well and defined absolute and relative poverty, few were able to develop each of the causes they identified sufficiently to achieve a level 3 answer. Often their responses became little more than a ‘list’ of the causes of poverty, and at best were ‘reasonable’ answers rather than ‘good’ which is required for level 3. Students should be reminded of the importance of demonstrating sound knowledge and understanding of economic terminology, which some failed to do in answering this question. Similarly, the use of diagrams helps to develop their chains of reasoning and leads to higher level analysis.

(June 2017) Question 11 Explain the main causes of poverty in the UK. (15 marks)
(June 2017) Question 12 To what extent can the problem of poverty in the UK be solved through the operation of market forces? Justify your answer. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Discussion of whether relative poverty is a problem, whether it is inevitable and insoluble.
  • Discussion of market forces
  • The argument that some relative poverty has been created or reinforced by the state, through, for example the unemployment trap or a culture of benefits dependency
  • Discussion of the fact that the individual people defined as being in relative poverty have not always been so, and that the UK has reasonably good levels of social mobility with people moving in/out of relative poverty
  • Market forces can lead to job creation, providing one of the strongest routes out of poverty
  • Low labour taxes and low welfare spending provide stronger incentives for workers to escape poverty by their own means
  • Many problems associated with housing are linked to failures of policy rather than the market (e.g. lack of new homes resulting from Green Belt planning law, etc.)
  • Trickle down effects
  • The need for government intervention to prevent wealth from being excessively concentrated in the hands of the rich
  • Why market forces are unlikely to deal adequately with some causes of poverty, eg poverty amongst the sick, disabled, the old and infirm
  • Arguments in favour of progressive direct taxes rather than regressive indirect taxes
  • Policies that retain an element of incentives, such as working tax credit
  • The need for government intervention to establish a minimum level of essential human capital and physical capital investments (eg education and transport infrastructure)
  • The tendency of markets to increase rather than decrease poverty
  • The distinction between the impact of market forces on absolute, as opposed to relative, poverty.

Here students needed to consider to what extent the problem of poverty in the UK can be solved through the operation of market forces. Many students decided to treat this as a ‘what’s the best way?’ question and ignored the crucial reference to market forces. Whilst such answers could include good analysis and real world examples, the evaluation was limited in respect of its focus on the question. In some instances it was disappointing to see that some students did not understand the concept of market forces. That said there were some excellent answers that dealt with market forces, and the idea of ‘trickle-down’ economics. Better answers considered the actual cause of poverty, and discussed the extent of government involvement that might be required, whilst others suggested that leaving the problem to market forces might make poverty worse.

(June 2017) Question 12 To what extent can the problem of poverty in the UK be solved through the operation of market forces? Justify your answer. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 3
  • Question 13 - Explain why, in a free market, sugary drinks may be overconsumed. (15 marks)
  • Question 14 - Evaluate the view that imposing a tax is the most effective government policy for reducing the market failures arising from overconsumption of unhealthy food and drink. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 3
(June 2017) Question 13 Explain why, in a free market, sugary drinks may be overconsumed. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Explanation of market failure
  • Sugary drinks as demerit goods leading to over-consumption
  • Asymmetric/imperfect information problems as consumers may fail to recognise the true costs and benefits of what they consume
  • Negative externalities in consumption
  • Examples of negative externalities in consumption arising from sugary drinks
  • Explanation of the specific health concerns and their burden on the NHS
  • Concerns about dental hygiene amongst children
  • Addictive properties of sugary drinks leading to inelastic demand
  • Reference to ‘behavioural’ reasons why sugary drinks might be over-consumed, eg bounded rationality, bounded self-control, social norms and other cognitive biases
  • The tendency to undervalue the long-run consequences of consuming sugary drinks (the over-optimism bias).

In this question students needed to explain why sugary drinks may be overconsumed in a free market. Most students found this to be a straightforward question and was extremely popular. That said, in terms of mean mark it was not answered as well as might have been expected. Many students were able to identify a sugary drink as a demerit good, and went on to use the negative externalities in consumption diagram to support their answer. The best responses integrated the diagram effectively to develop their chains of reasoning, but many students simply drew the diagram and failed to make any reference to it. It has to be said also, that there was a number of errors in drawing the diagrams, ranging from the hugely significant curves in the wrong places, to the less significant inaccurate identification of the deadweight welfare loss triangle. A fairly significant number of responses were spoiled due to inaccurate diagrams, and students should be encouraged to learn and practise these. Whilst the negative externalities in consumption diagram was expected, students were not penalised for using the negative externalities in production diagram. Basic demand and supply diagrams were also rewarded where appropriate.In addition to the externalities theory, many students developed other chains of analysis such as information failure leading consumers to undervalue the long term costs of consumption. Answers were also enhanced by behavioural theory.

(June 2017) Question 13 Explain why, in a free market, sugary drinks may be overconsumed. (15 marks)
(June 2017) Question 14 Evaluate the view that imposing a tax is the most effective government policy for reducing the market failures arising from overconsumption of unhealthy food and drink. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • The existence of market failure
  • Explanation of how taxes reduce consumption
  • Distinction between specific and ad valorem tax
  • The argument that if demand is inelastic, this will result in larger tax revenues which can be put towards public health spending to the same effect
  • The extent to which the burden of the sugar tax will be passed on to consumers rather than hitting profits of producers
  • The likely extent to which producers change their recipes to avoid the tax
  • The fact that the tax only applies to some sugary drinks, and not others (eg milk-based or fruit-based drinks), and does not apply to sugary foods such as chocolate bars
  • Unintended consequences (positive and negative) which have emerged (or could emerge) from the policy
  • Alternative policies such as a minimum price per litre, a rationing of quantity, a ban in school vending machines, quantitative limits on the sugar added to drinks in the production process, subsidy for healthier alternatives
  • Policies to increase uptake of healthier alternatives such as water or milk including information campaigns, subsidies, free school milk, etc
  • Whether more prominent labelling (perhaps using a "teaspoon of sugar" measure) is more or less effective
  • Whether consumer drinks choice is an appropriate area of interference by the Government, or alternatively evidence of the "nanny state"
  • Whether insights from behavioural economics offer possible solutions, eg nudge economics, social norms
  • Government failure arguments

Here students needed to evaluate the view that imposing a tax was the most effective government policy for reducing the market failures arising from overconsumption of unhealthy food and drink. Most students found this to be a very straightforward question, and it was not surprising that it elicited the highest mean mark of all of the other 25 mark questions. It had by far the highest percentage of level 5 responses, 23% of students achieved a level 5 mark, compared with the lowest percentage of 13% for the poverty question. Students produced some excellent responses.A typical approach was to discuss the effectiveness of the imposition of a tax and at least one other policy. Many students were able to include relevant diagrams and successfully integrate them into their answers to develop their analysis further. Good responses were definitely further enriched by behavioural theory, which was alluded to in the ‘stem’ to the question, in addition to traditional theory. It was pleasing to see that so many students had embraced this new area of the specification, and that they were able to use it appropriately. Students made use of the relevant behavioural economic terminology, and often developed a few of the numerous real world examples. The combination of theoretical analysis and context helped many students to demonstrate good supported evaluation in their responses.

(June 2017) Question 14 Evaluate the view that imposing a tax is the most effective government policy for reducing the market failures arising from overconsumption of unhealthy food and drink. (25 marks)
Summary of June 2017 Paper 1 Markets and market failure

Centres should be reminded that in addition to the Report on the Examination there is a range of exemplar materials, such as students’ responses and examiner commentaries available on the AQA website to assist them in preparing students for the examinations.

Summary of June 2017 Paper 1 Markets and market failure
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 1
  • Question 1 - Using Extract A, calculate the ratio of customers gained to customers lost by Nationwide. Give your answer correct to one decimal place. (2 marks)
  • Question 2 - Explain how the data in Extract A show that the market power of the Big Four banks is weakening against competition from smaller rivals. (4 marks)
  • Question 3 - Extract C (lines 10-11) states that ‘There is ample opportunity for new players to enter the sector.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how the lowering of barriers to entry in the banking market might lead to lower prices and a situation in which banks make normal profit. (9 marks)
  • Question 4 - Extract B (lines 4-5) states that ‘banks do not feel enough pressure to compete on price or quality, leading some to call for the Big Four to be split into a number of smaller banks.’ Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to assess the view that the government should intervene further in the banking sector to promote greater competition. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 1
(June 2018) Question 1 Using Extract A, calculate the ratio of customers gained to customers lost by Nationwide. Give your answer correct to one decimal place. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For the correct answer to one decimal place.
  • For the correct answer but not expressed as a ratio and/or not to one decimal place and/or not reduced to its simplest form.
  • For the answer expressed as a ratio of customers lost to customers gained, ie 0.3:1; or 1:3.6, also allow 1:3.5, 1:3.7

Students were required to calculate the ratio of customers gained to customers lost by Nationwide to one decimal place. Over a third of students gained 2 marks. Some students did not calculate the ratio to one decimal place, or did not leave the final answer as a ratio and these were awarded 1 mark.

(June 2018) Question 1 Using Extract A, calculate the ratio of customers gained to customers lost by Nationwide. Give your answer correct to one decimal place. (2 marks)
(June 2018) Question 2 Explain how the data in Extract A show that the market power of the Big Four banks is weakening against competition from smaller rivals. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that the market power of the Big Four is weakening against competition from smaller rivals.
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence of weakening Big Four market power.

Relevant issues include:

  • explanation of the concept of market power
  • factors that determine market power, eg market share, degree of competition
  • the Big Four as a group have gained approximately 485 000 but lost 670 000, a net loss of 185 000
  • Barclays and RBS Natwest have been the biggest net losers (100 000 and 115 000 respectively)
  • Santander, TSB, Nationwide and others have gained approximately 435 000 but lost 253 000, a net gain of 182 000
  • Nationwide and Santander are the biggest net gainers (110 000 and 83 000 respectively)
  • Lloyds goes against the trend of the Big Four, by gaining customers.

Note

  • Please allow a margin of +/- 5000 customers per bank.

For the 4 mark questions (questions 2 and 6) students needed to demonstrate that they understood how the data provided supported a particular proposition. There is no set way to answer these questions, and generally it was pleasing to see that some students had been taught how to approach them.In this particular question students needed to explain how the data showed that the market power of the big four banks was weakening against competition from smaller rivals. Whilst a definition / explanation of weakening market power was not essential, it was helpful to support the data that the students chose to use. In addition to a definition or brief explanation, in the best answers the students said what they expected to find to address the question, quoted the evidence in the data and then tied the answer up by saying how this evidence explained what had been asked for. Whilst the evidence quoted was usually good, for example, many students used the net losses / gains for the big four and the smaller rivals, the explanations were often unclear or limited.

(June 2018) Question 2 Explain how the data in Extract A show that the market power of the Big Four banks is weakening against competition from smaller rivals. (4 marks)
(June 2018) Question 3 Extract C (lines 10-11) states that ‘There is ample opportunity for new players to enter the sector.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how the lowering of barriers to entry in the banking market might lead to lower prices and a situation in which banks make normal profit. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • A monopoly diagram is expected, showing a firm profit maximising initially, but subsequently reducing prices closer to (or at) normal profit. A monopolist facing potential entrants in a contestable market would fear entry and reduce price from Pm to Pc, with profits falling to just normal profits
  • Click to view the Suggested Diagram
  • Other reasonable diagrams are acceptable, eg monopolistic competition with the AR/MR shifting left because of entry

Relevant issues include:

  • Explanation of contestability and barriers to entry in the banking industry
  • Explanation of "new players", including examples, such as Metro Bank
  • Why increased competition usually reduces prices and profits
  • Analysis of how supernormal profits can be driven towards zero by the presence (or even mere threat) of new entrants
  • Reference to increasing innovation and focus on customer service of new entrants
  • Explanation of how improving the customer switching service may reduce customer inertia
  • Reference to falling revenue per customer.

In the 9 mark questions (questions 3 and 7) students are instructed to use a diagram to help them answer the question.In this question students needed to use a diagram to help them explain how the lowering of barriers to entry in the banking market might lead to lower prices and a situation in which banks make normal profit. It was expected that students would use a monopoly diagram, which showed the profit-maximising level of output and supernormal profit, in contrast to a lower price and normal profit due to the market becoming more contestable and/or more firms entering the market. Alternative diagrams were often drawn and were acceptable if supported by a logical chain of reasoning.In the best answers students made use of the data and acknowledged that at the time the banking market was oligopolistic. From this point they were able to use the diagram to help explain the impact on price and profits using well-focused, logical analysis. Whilst an ‘unused’ diagram represents application of economics to the given context, once it is explained and used in the response it forms part of the chain of reasoning.As is often the case, it was disappointing to see some elementary mistakes on diagrams, such as the so-called ‘profit-maximisation’ level of output not occurring where MR=MC, or the price not being taken from the AR curve.

(June 2018) Question 3 Extract C (lines 10-11) states that ‘There is ample opportunity for new players to enter the sector.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how the lowering of barriers to entry in the banking market might lead to lower prices and a situation in which banks make normal profit. (9 marks)
(June 2018) Question 4 Extract B (lines 4-5) states that ‘banks do not feel enough pressure to compete on price or quality, leading some to call for the Big Four to be split into a number of smaller banks.’ Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to assess the view that the government should intervene further in the banking sector to promote greater competition. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Explanation of competition and the range of government policies to foster competition
  • Discussion of the nature of the UK banking sector and the historic dominance of Lloyds, Barclays, RBS Natwest and HSBC
  • Awareness of recent changes to the market structure, eg
    • 2008 financial crisis - Northern Rock, Bradford & Bingley bankruptcies
    • Lloyds-HBOS merger, TSB demerger
  • Innovation in the banking sector, resulting in a move away from FIIC accounts towards packaged accounts and cashback
  • Big Four problems over unwieldy and costly IT infrastructure, diseconomies of scale and scope
  • Barriers to entry in the banking sector, including
    • Legal/ regulatory
    • physical, eg branch network
    • Financial, eg start-up capital required
    • customer inertia (link to behavioural economics)
  • comparison with other utilities’ contestability
  • discussion of possible policies, including
    • breaking up large banks (eg demerger of TSB and Lloyds, and attempted sale by RBS of Williams and Glyn)
    • price regulation
    • improving information in the market, eg price comparison websites and Customer Switching Service
    • nudge/ behavioural policies (as per CMA Review)
  • recent rise in new entrants and connection to the rise of internet banking
  • benefits of competition
  • benefits of concentration, eg economies of scale, high MES, high profits facilitating innovation
  • the impact of market forces, creative destruction and new technology in the banking sector
  • are the banks exploiting consumers, including possible collusion?
  • the role of the Bank of England, the PRA and the FPC
  • market failure arguments
  • government failure arguments.

Here students needed to use the extracts and their knowledge to assess the view that the Government should intervene further in the banking sector to promote greater competition. Some answers were solely theoretical and discussed the arguments for and against oligopoly and / or collusion (on the assumption that this must be taking place) without dealing with the context. Others focused excessively on policies, even to the extent of concluding which was the best policy option, rather than dealing with whether or not the government should intervene further. Many students recognised the need to use the data in the extracts as part of their application skills, but in the better answers the data prompts were effectively integrated with the theoretical analysis. This helped to bring the theory to life, and was used to support valid and appropriate conclusions. Some of the best answers picked up on the word ‘further' from the question, and acknowledged that the banking market had already been subject to government intervention, and gone through change in recent years. These students often included examples from their knowledge of the banking market and the financial crisis, though not always in the context of 'promoting greater competition'.As always, in the very best answers, students demonstrated their evaluation skills throughout their response, for example by making judgements on the significance and importance of arguments as they progressed, before coming to their final judgement. Generally with the 25 mark questions, in order to achieve a level 5 response, the evaluation should be supported by theoretical analysis and also by the use of data from the extracts and the students’ own examples and contexts. The latter is really only obtained when students take an interest in real world issues, and this plays a huge role in enriching their answers.

(June 2018) Question 4 Extract B (lines 4-5) states that ‘banks do not feel enough pressure to compete on price or quality, leading some to call for the Big Four to be split into a number of smaller banks.’ Use the extracts and your knowledge of economics to assess the view that the government should intervene further in the banking sector to promote greater competition. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 2
  • Question 5 - Using Extract D, calculate the number of transportation and storage jobs at high risk of automation, as a percentage of those who are at high risk across all industries. Give your answer to two decimal places. (2 marks)
  • Question 6 - Explain how the data in Extract D show that workers employed in routine repetitive work are at greater risk from automation. (4 marks)
  • Question 7 - Extract E (lines 4-5) claims that workers in the 18th century saw wages rise in line with productivity. With the help of a diagram, explain how advances in modern technology are likely to lead to rising wages in some industries. (9 marks)
  • Question 8 - Extract E (lines 14-16) states that ‘The market economy is not going to create the jobs by itself for those workers who are most affected by the change.’ Extract F (lines 4-5) states that ‘taxing productivity-enhancing tools like robots or machines makes no economic sense.’ Use the extracts and your own knowledge of economics to evaluate whether governments should allow markets to respond freely to the opportunities and challenges presented by technological progress, without any state intervention. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 2
(June 2018) Question 5 Using Extract D, calculate the number of transportation and storage jobs at high risk of automation, as a percentage of those who are at high risk across all industries. Give your answer to two decimal places. (2 marks)

See Question 1.

Students were required to calculate the number of transportation and storage jobs at high risk of automation as a percentage of those who were at risk across all industries, and most (61%) were able to do so accurately by selecting the correct numbers from the table. Less than 5% of students earned only 1 mark, either for failing to include the % sign, not calculating the figure to two decimal places, or for rounding the wrong way. However, over 30% of students failed to score any marks.

(June 2018) Question 5 Using Extract D, calculate the number of transportation and storage jobs at high risk of automation, as a percentage of those who are at high risk across all industries. Give your answer to two decimal places. (2 marks)
(June 2018) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D show that workers employed in routine repetitive work are at greater risk from automation. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that workers in routine, repetitive work are at greater risk of automation than those whose work involves more variety
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that workers in routine, repetitive work are at greater risk of automation

Relevant issues include:

  • Explanation of automation
  • Why workers in routine, repetitive work are at greater risk from automation
  • How work in some sectors involves more varied, non-routine, skilled tasks than others
  • Wholesale and retail is the sector with the largest at-risk workforce (2.25 million)
  • Water, sewage and waste (62.6%), transport and storage (56.4%) and manufacturing (46.4%) are the sectors at highest risk if automation. All these sectors have a high proportion of workers employed in repetitive routine work
  • The sectors at lowest risk include education (8.5%) and human health (17.0%), and professional, scientific and technical (25.6%). All these sectors have workers employed in very varied tasks.

For this question students were required to explain how the data showed that workers employed in routine, repetitive work were at greater risk from automation. As with question 2, firstly, it was helpful to clarify the meaning of ‘automation’. The best answers used evidence for industries at both high and low risk, and considered how those that involved the same task being done over and over again were more likely to be replaced by robots, for example, whereas those that required human interaction had a lower risk. However, many students simply used the words ‘routine’ and ‘repetitive’ which appeared in the question without developing further, so even though they used good evidence, their explanations were limited. However, overall they appeared to find the link between the data and the proposition easier to explain than those answering question 2.

(June 2018) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D show that workers employed in routine repetitive work are at greater risk from automation. (4 marks)
(June 2018) Question 7 Extract E (lines 4-5) claims that workers in the 18th century saw wages rise in line with productivity. With the help of a diagram, explain how advances in modern technology are likely to lead to rising wages in some industries. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • A labour market diagram is expected, showing the MRP curve shifting right, as technological progress increases labour productivity.
  • Click to view the Suggested Diagram
  • Other reasonable diagrams are acceptable, eg cost curve diagrams

Relevant issues include:

  • How automation and technological progress boost labour productivity within industries and markets
  • Connection between MPP, MRP and the demand for labour
  • Why labour productivity is likely to affect the wage rate
  • How machines create a derived demand for workers who can maintain the machines, and the impact of this on jobs and wages
  • How advances in technology can lead to new products and / or lower prices creating
  • Derived demand for workers to produce the good and therefore higher wages
  • How advances in technology can lead to lower costs and an increase in profits which may lead to an increase in wages.

In this question students needed to use a diagram to help them explain how advances in modern technology are likely to lead to rising wages in some industries. It was expected that students would link rising productivity to the marginal revenue product of labour in industries where technology was embraced. Consequently, the expected diagram showed an increase in the demand for labour (MRP labour) and a rise in the wage rate. However, there was a number of routes to full marks. Some students used the prompts in the data to help, whilst others brought in their own suggestions. For example, some brought in derived demand, or the point that more skilled workers would be needed to maintain/repair machines, or the idea that higher profits would enable firms to pay higher wages. As before, the best answers were written in the context of the question, and the diagram was properly integrated into the response to form part of the chain of reasoning.

(June 2018) Question 7 Extract E (lines 4-5) claims that workers in the 18th century saw wages rise in line with productivity. With the help of a diagram, explain how advances in modern technology are likely to lead to rising wages in some industries. (9 marks)
(June 2018) Question 8 Extract E (lines 14-16) states that ‘The market economy is not going to create the jobs by itself for those workers who are most affected by the change.’ Extract F (lines 4-5) states that ‘taxing productivity-enhancing tools like robots or machines makes no economic sense.’ Use the extracts and your own knowledge of economics to evaluate whether governments should allow markets to respond freely to the opportunities and challenges presented by technological progress, without any state intervention. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • What is meant by technological progress
  • The historical impact of technological progress and how it has affected labour markets
  • Current issues around technological unemployment (eg self-service supermarket checkouts, driverless trucks, self-service ticket machines)
  • The likely impact on jobs and wages
  • Concerns about the impact of technological progress on inequality and poverty, linked to regional and sectoral differences (making use of Extract D)
  • Labour market imperfections which make it difficult for unemployed worker to transfer into other jobs or locations
  • How automation is now threatening well-paid, high-status jobs such as surgeons and accountants, not only manufacturing or retail work, and that the determining factor for automation risk is whether the tasks are routine or varied
  • The optimists’ argument that robots will only be used where profit can be made, and this requires a customer base who need to have a source of income (most likely to come from wages)
  • The benefits of allowing the price mechanism to function
  • Analysis and assessment of the consequences of technological progress as a result of dynamic efficiency on costs, output, quality in product markets
  • Analysis and assessment of: the UBI proposal, a robot tax, retraining programmes, job creation programmes or any other appropriate form of intervention
  • Discussion of possible government failure when designing policies in such a fast-moving area
  • The case against intervention, to allow market forces to redistribute labour and other factors of production to where they are demanded
  • The view that the basic economic problem of scarcity is unlikely to be solved and hence new jobs will always be created to replace those that are lost
  • Evaluation of how much automation is actually a problem that needs to be addressed
  • Market failure arguments
  • Government failure arguments.

In this question students needed to use the extracts and their knowledge to evaluate whether governments should allow markets to respond freely to the opportunities and challenges presented by technological progress, without any state intervention. The data focused on the labour market, and whilst the expectation was that students would do the same, credit was also given to those who considered the consequences of technological progress on product markets. However such responses lacked support from the evidence in the extracts and became 'generic' technological change essays. Students should be reminded to make full use of the extracts provided to support their points. Some answers focused completely on the arguments for and against different types of government intervention, specifically the 'robot tax' and the 'Universal Basic Income'. Although this was relevant to the answer, it was only part of a decision about whether or not governments should 'allow markets to respond freely' to the opportunities and challenges posed. In the best answers, students drew from the evidence in the extracts, often accompanied by their own relevant examples and context, and skilfully integrated this with their theoretical analysis, before drawing supported, and realistic conclusions.

(June 2018) Question 8 Extract E (lines 14-16) states that ‘The market economy is not going to create the jobs by itself for those workers who are most affected by the change.’ Extract F (lines 4-5) states that ‘taxing productivity-enhancing tools like robots or machines makes no economic sense.’ Use the extracts and your own knowledge of economics to evaluate whether governments should allow markets to respond freely to the opportunities and challenges presented by technological progress, without any state intervention. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 1
  • Question 9 - Explain why the use of petrol and diesel cars may be a source of market failure. (15 marks)
  • Question 10 - Assess the view that regulation is a better policy for dealing with the problem of air pollution than the allocation of property rights or taxation. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 1
(June 2018) Question 9 Explain why the use of petrol and diesel cars may be a source of market failure. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • definition of market failure
  • distinction between MSB and MPB (allow MSC and MPC)
  • explanation of why MPB is greater than MSB
  • analysis of the negative consumption (allow production) externalities produced by driving petrol and diesel cars
    • air pollution
    • noise pollution
    • congestion
    • accidents
  • why the existence of negative externalities leads to over-production and consumption
  • discussion of current government interventions such as licences, speed limits, age restrictions, congestion charge
  • information asymmetry problems, for example the fact that diesel cars used to be thought of as cleaner than petrol cars.

In this question students needed to explain why the use of petrol and diesel cars may be a source of market failure. This was a very straightforward question and was overwhelmingly the most popular. Whilst a diagram is not required in these essay questions, the best answers focused on negative externalities in consumption, and almost always included the supporting diagram, which was effectively integrated into the response to help develop the chain of reasoning. However many students simply drew a diagram and failed to make any reference to it. It has to be said also, that there was a number of errors in drawing diagrams, ranging from the hugely significant curves in the wrong places, to the less significant inaccurate identification of the deadweight welfare loss triangle. Answers were sometimes spoiled due to inaccurate diagrams, and students should be encouraged to learn and practise these. A diagram showing negative externalities in production and the accompanying analysis was allowed but sometimes a diagram was followed by a discussion of the negative externalities generated by 'manufacturing' cars, despite the question being about ‘use’. Good answers included clear definitions of key terms, and provided examples of externalities, with many students making use of the prompts given at the start of the question.In addition to the externalities theory, some students developed other chains of analysis such as information failure leading consumers to ignore the external costs of consumption. Answers were also enhanced by behavioural theory.

(June 2018) Question 9 Explain why the use of petrol and diesel cars may be a source of market failure. (15 marks)
(June 2018) Question 10 Assess the view that regulation is a better policy for dealing with the problem of air pollution than the allocation of property rights or taxation. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Analysis of the main sources of air pollution (road vehicles, ships, factories, energy production)
  • Analysis of the main impacts of air pollution (localised health problems, smog, acid rain, global warming)
  • The impact that existing policies have had, eg air passenger duty, fuel excise duty, regulations surrounding emissions (NB Volkswagen scandal), price controls
  • Explanation of regulation
  • The benefits of regulation (simple, easy to change, easier to enforce)
  • The costs of regulation (blunt and inefficient tools, create rent-seeking behaviour, unresponsive to changing markets)
  • Explanation of property rights and how a clear allocation of property rights might help,
  • the limitations of property right allocation as an effective policy
    • How the initial allocation of property rights can be extremely problematic
    • How difficult it can be to identify when a right is being breached. For example, if an individual has a right to clean air, how is "clean air" to be defined?
  • The success or otherwise of tradable permit systems such as the EU Emission Trading Scheme and the Californian trading system
  • Explanation of environmental taxation and how it might be applied in this context
  • The benefits and costs of taxation
  • The international nature of the problem, meaning that interventions taken by individual countries can address localised problems such as smog, but that problems such as global warming require coordinated global action
  • Examples of successful/unsuccessful regulatory interventions
  • Whether improved information can be an effective antidote to polluting behaviour
  • Government failure arguments.

In this question students were required to assess the view that regulation is a better policy for dealing with the problem of air pollution than the allocation of property rights or taxation. The answer was expected to cover all three policies but since the wording of the question could be interpreted to be offering a choice, answers covering regulation and either property rights or taxation were equally acceptable. It was recognised that students writing about all three policies could not be expected to answer in the same depth as those who only covered two. Some students misinterpreted it as a 'which is the best policy' question and treated it as an opportunity to discuss any policy they had learnt and this was inappropriate.It was expected that students would begin with a discussion of regulation in general, and an acknowledgement of its scope. However, few students actually even defined it, and some simply picked one example to analyse and evaluate. In some cases, where this was a 'poor' example of regulation it often skewed their evaluation of regulation as a whole, and adversely affected the quality of the answer. Whilst most students were comfortable discussing taxation, only a few were comfortable with the allocation of property rights. Few students, for example, were able to discuss the practicalities of trying to deal with air, and some confused property rights with pollution permits. In the best answers students integrated their own examples and context with their theoretical analysis, and considered the much broader scope of air pollution in general. A number of students continued the theme of the previous question, dealing only with petrol and diesel cars, which was fine, but sometimes limited the breadth of their analysis and evaluation.

(June 2018) Question 10 Assess the view that regulation is a better policy for dealing with the problem of air pollution than the allocation of property rights or taxation. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 2
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 2
(June 2018) Question 11 Explain how the Lorenz curve and Gini coefficient may be used to illustrate increasing income inequality in a country. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • a clear diagram of the Lorenz curve correctly labelled
  • explanation of how perfect equality and perfect inequality are represented
  • explanation of how the shape of the curve relates to the cumulative proportions of income and population
  • the connection between the Lorenz curve and the Gini coefficient
  • how the Lorenz curve and Gini coefficient could be used to show increasing inequality. This is most likely to be done by using the diagram to show 2 Lorenz curves on the same axes.

This question required students to explain how the Lorenz curve and Gini coefficient may be used to illustrate increasing income inequality in a country. It was very prescriptive and straightforward, yet was attempted by less than 9% of students. In the best responses, students drew a Lorenz curve diagram depicting the line of perfect equality and an initial Lorenz curve, with a second curve, drawn to the right of the first, to illustrate increasing inequality. Similarly, students used a range of numbers between 0 and 1 with regard to the Gini coefficient. A number of students integrated the two by linking the Gini calculation to the relevant areas they had highlighted on the diagram. Some students quoted the Gini data for the UK or for other countries over time, and whilst this wasn't essential it enhanced their answers.Generally, students coped better with the Lorenz Curve than the Gini coefficient but sometimes their explanation did not extend to how they could both be used to illustrate increasing income inequality, as specified by the question.

(June 2018) Question 11 Explain how the Lorenz curve and Gini coefficient may be used to illustrate increasing income inequality in a country. (15 marks)
(June 2018) Question 12 Assess the view that, in the UK, the consequences of wealth inequality are more damaging than the consequences of income inequality. (25 marks)

(June 2018) Question 12 Assess the view that, in the UK, the consequences of wealth inequality are more damaging than the consequences of income inequality. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 3
(June 2018) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 3
(June 2018) Question 13

(June 2018) Question 13
(June 2018) Question 14

(June 2018) Question 14
Summary of June 2018 Paper 1 Markets and market failure

Summary of June 2018 Paper 1 Markets and market failure
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 1
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 1
(June 2019) Question 1

(June 2019) Question 1
(June 2019) Question 2

(June 2019) Question 2
(June 2019) Question 3

(June 2019) Question 3
(June 2019) Question 4

(June 2019) Question 4
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 2
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Context 2
(June 2019) Question 5

(June 2019) Question 5
(June 2019) Question 6

(June 2019) Question 6
(June 2019) Question 7

(June 2019) Question 7
(June 2019) Question 8

(June 2019) Question 8
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 1
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 1
(June 2019) Question 9

(June 2019) Question 9
(June 2019) Question 10

(June 2019) Question 10
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 2
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 2
(June 2019) Question 11

(June 2019) Question 11
(June 2019) Question 12

(June 2019) Question 12
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 3
(June 2019) Paper 1 Markets and market failure - Essay 3
(June 2019) Question 13

(June 2019) Question 13
(June 2019) Question 14

(June 2019) Question 14
Summary of June 2019 Paper 1 Markets and market failure

Summary of June 2019 Paper 1 Markets and market failure
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
  • ABC
    • Accurate
    • Big
    • Clear
  • ACE
    • Axis
    • Curve
    • Equilibrium
What to Remember when Drawing Diagrams.
What is the multiplier?

Looks at the relationship between injections (exports, investment, government spending) and the fact that the level of National Income wil grow. If you inject £10 million pounds, the economy grows by more than £10 million.

What is the multiplier?
What are 4 factors that influence the level of consumption?

What are 4 factors that influence the level of consumption?
What is cost push inflation?

When there is a rise in the cost of production, prices may rise for consumers.

What is cost push inflation?
What is an index number? (How day you calculate index numbers?)

A number showing the variation in a price or value compared with the price or value at the specified earlier time (base number - often represented by the number 100).

What is an index number? (How day you calculate index numbers?)
What are the 2 measures of inflation?

Consumer price index (CPI) and Retail price index (RPI).

What are the 2 measures of inflation?
Why does the CPI not include housing costs?

The housing market and housing costs can be far more volatile and may not be relevant unless somone is moving house.

Why does the CPI not include housing costs?
What are 3 factors that influence the level of investmetn?

What are 3 factors that influence the level of investmetn?
What causes the SRAS curve to shift?

Any change in the cost of factors of production.

What causes the SRAS curve to shift?
What is meant by the accelerator?

Looks at the relationship between national income and investment. If incomes rise by £10 million investment rises by £10 million pounds, the economy grows by more than £10 million. I = a(Yt-Y1)

What is meant by the accelerator?
Draw and label the circular flow of income.

Draw and label the circular flow of income.
What is unemployment?

People who are willing and able to work but do not have a job.

What is unemployment?
What are the 4 types of unemployment?

Frictional unemployment, structural unemployment, cyclical unemployment, seasonal unemployment.

What are the 4 types of unemployment?
What is frictional unemployment?

Transitional unemployment as people move between jobs or are in active job search. (Short term)

What is frictional unemployment?
What is structural unemployment?

A mismatch between people’s skills and requirements of the new jobs due to occupational and geographical immobility of labour. The government would be most concerned with structural unemployment as people would need to be educated/trained for skills. (Long term)

What is structural unemployment?
What is cyclical unemployment?

Involuntary unemployment due to a lack of demand for goods and services. This is also known as Keynesian or demand-deficient unemployment. (Short term)

What is cyclical unemployment?
What is seasonal unemployment?

People find themselves unemployed at certain times of the year. (Short term)

What is seasonal unemployment?
What is full Employment?

Jobs for all that want them but not zero unemployment because some people are always between jobs, there will usually be some frictional unemployment.

What is full Employment?
What is a labour force?

Anyone able and willing to work. (Employed + Unemployed)

What is a labour force?
What is inflation?

A general rise in prices of prices of goods and services in an economy.

What is inflation?
What is demand-pull inflation?

Demand-pull inflation happens when the demand for certain goods and services is greater than the economy's ability to meet those demands.

What is demand-pull inflation?
What is cost-push inflation?

Cost-push inflation is where the costs of production increases and so producers have to raise their prices accordingly.

What is cost-push inflation?
What is the dictionary definition of hysteresis?

The dependence of the state on its history.

What is the dictionary definition of hysteresis?
Apply the dictionary definition of hysteresis to economics.

Used to describe the situation where an economy fails to return to its former long term trend rate of growth following a recession.

Apply the dictionary definition of hysteresis to economics.
Why does hysteresis occur?
  • Permanent loss in human capital (early retirement, long term unemployment - deskilled).
  • Firms cut back investment, shut factories etc - may fail to reopen these.
  • Lack of business and consumer confidence.
  • Hysteresis is where an economy fails to return to pre-recession levels (falls away from trend rate of growth).
Why does hysteresis occur?
What is economic scarring?

Economic scarring refers to the medium-long term damage done to the economies of one or more countries following a severe economic shock which then leads to a recession.

What is economic scarring?
How can economic scarring manifest itself?

Scarring can manifest itself in several ways including a slowdown or absolute fall in a country’s estimated potential GDP and their long-term trend growth rate.

How can economic scarring manifest itself?
List a number of effects that might be seen as a result of economic scarring.
  1. Fall in business investment leading to an ageing of the existing capital stock
  2. Rise in long-term unemployment and economic inactivity in the labour market
  3. Increase in business failures including many commercially viable businesses
  4. Shrinkage in the capacity of financial system to lend to businesses and households
List a number of effects that might be seen as a result of economic scarring.
What is meant by cyclical instability?

The fluctuations in the economic cycle (going through booms and recessions).

What is meant by cyclical instability?
Draw and label an AD/AS diagram that shows a short run supply side shock & 2 demand side shocks.

Draw and label an AD/AS diagram that shows a short run supply side shock & 2 demand side shocks.
Give an example of an endogenous and exogenous economic shock.

An example of an endogenous shock could be a sudden change in interest rates, an example an an exogenous shock would be.

Give an example of an endogenous and exogenous economic shock.
Explain one factor that would increase the long term trend rate of growth for an economy.

An increase in population because more people.

Explain one factor that would increase the long term trend rate of growth for an economy.
What is the long term trend rate of growth for an economy equivalent to?

LRAS and PPF.

What is the long term trend rate of growth for an economy equivalent to?
Is an economy always going to bounce back to its previous growth rate following a recession? Justify

Hysterisis.

Is an economy always going to bounce back to its previous growth rate following a recession? Justify
Describe the short-run Phillips curve.
  • Used to show demand-pull and cost-push inflation.
  • Originally developed by the New Zealand economist Phillips who made his name working at LSE.
    • He mapped the relationship between wages and unemployment using a simple correlation analysis for data for up to 100 years and came up with a relationship and plotted a line of best fit which is the SRPC.
  • Downward sloping curve to make reference to the inverse relationship between wage growth and unemployment.
    • In times of very low unemployment wage would rise very quickly (when unemployment is low workers are scarce and so have more bargaining power to push up wages).
    • In times of high unemployment it makes sense that wages or wage growth would be falling and maybe becoming negative as workers may take pay cuts in times during times of high unemployment when workers were plentiful in supply putting downward pressure on wages.
  • Later, economists made a statistical inference and replaced wage growth on the y-axis with inflation rate instead.
  • Economic growth and the SRPC
    • If we were to increase growth and reduce unemployment we would suffer from higher inflation. This is shown by shifting AD to AD2 (right). In the short-term on the classical model that increases growth and that will reduce unemployment below the natural rate but at a cost of higher inflation. This is shown on the Phillips curve.
  • Economic shrinking and the SRPC
    • If we were to shift AD to AD3 (left) in the classical model output and inflation falls but unemployment rises beyond the natural rate. This is shown on the Phillips curve.
  • Key takeaways of the basic SRPC model
    • Whenever aggregate demand shifts right or left there is a movement along the SRPC.
    • SRPC can be used to represent demand-pull inflation and how demand-pull inflation can increase and decrease according to shifts of AD.
    • Shows conflict between unemployment and inflation.
    • Monetarists, classical economists like Milton Friedman decided that the basic model was not good enough; it did not tell us and explain periods where an economy can be suffering from high inflation and high unemployment (known as stagflation).
  • Negative supply side shock and the SRPC
    • A negative supply-side shock would shift SRAS1 to SRAS2 (left) which increases inflation and increases unemployment (as output falls). On the Phillips curve we must shift the SRPC (as the basic model would show an increase in inflation but a fall in unemployment). The SRPC shifts in the opposite direction of the SRAS. As shown in the example, inflation and unemployment rise when the SRPC is shifted.
  • Positive supply side shock and the SRPC
    • A positive supply-side shock, such as a fall in the oil price, would result in an increase in output and a reduction in cost-push inflation. On the basic SRPC we would see an reduction in inflation but an increase in unemployment. On this occasion we would shift the SRPC to the left so that there is lower inflation and a reduction in unemployment below the NRU.
  • Key takeaways of the complex SRPC model
    • Illustrates stagflation; an economy can be suffering from high inflation and high unemployment (this overcomes a major limitation of the basic SRPC which cannot be shown).
    • Also shows cost-push inflation by shifting the SRPC left or right according to changes in costs of production.
    • A limitation is that the SRPC doesn't show the long-term equilibrium; the classical model shows how an economy can move back to full employment levels of output in the long term.
  • Click to view a video showing how to draw the SRPC
Describe the short-run Phillips curve.
Describe the long-run Phillips curve.
  • A model based off of and adapted from the SRPC. The LRPC shows that output will always return to the full employment level.
  • Increase in Demand and the LRPC
    • AD shifts from AD1 to AD2 (right). This increases output and leads to demand-pull inflation in the short-run model (reduction in unemployment and an increase in demand-pull inflation). Workers would then change their wage expectations upwards (demand higher wages) which will then increase costs of productions for firms and shift SRAS from SRAS1 to SRAS2 (left) - this would shift the basic SRPC to the right (SRPC2) which shows higher inflation and a return to the NRU. If we connect the two points together (shown A to C) we will get a new curve; the Long-Run Phillips Curve (LRPC). Which tells us what the Long-Run Aggregate Supply Curve (LRAS) tells us; the LRPC tells us that output at the NRU while all factors of production are being used to their maximum amount, but at sustainable levels.
  • The LRPC says that the economy will always return back to the NRU. That is to say you can have short deviations up and down the LRPC or the SRPC shifts left and right but in the long-run we will always return back to the LRPC which is at the NRU.
  • The LRPC also tells us that it is not just the NRU but the NAIRU (the Non-Accelerating Inflation Rate of Unemployment) which is the rate of unemployment rate at which the inflation rate can be stable (not accelerating). Whenever the economy is at the NRU (5% value) whatever inflation rate is being achieved at that rate is stable and can be a long-term equilibrium for an economy.
    • Only if there is unnecessary demand-side management or if there is a supply-side shock will inflation change and then a new equilibrium is formed with a higher inflation rate at the NRU.
  • To summarise the LRPC is just a LRAS and the same conclusions can be formed as a result of this which is that increasing AD is not a way to increase growth in the long term - just like the classical economist would argue that we don't need increases in AD in the long term to increase growth or to reduce unemployment but what we need is supply-side policies and that's the only way in the long term to reduce this natural rate of unemployment and to see an increase in growth and a reduction in unemployment with lower rates of inflation.
    • Using supply-side policies and shifting the LRPC to the left is the only way that the NRU can fall from 5% to 4%.
  • Click to view a video showing how to draw the LRPC
Describe the long-run Phillips curve.
Outline the government's four main macroeconomic objectives.

The government has four main macroeconomic objectives. These aim to provide macro stability.

  • Economic growth: In the UK, the long run trend of economic growth is about 2.5%. Governments aim to have sustainable economic growth for the long run. In emerging markets and developing economies, governments might aim to increase economic development before economic growth, which will improve living standards, increase life expectancy and improve literacy rates.
  • Minimising unemployment: Governments aim to have as near to full employment as possible. They account for frictional unemployment by aiming for an unemployment rate of around 3%. The labour force should also be employed in productive work.
  • Price stability: In the UK, the government inflation target is 2%, measured with CPI. This aims to provide price stability for firms and consumers, and will help them make decisions for the long run. If the inflation rate falls 1% outside this target, the Governor of the Bank of England has to write a letter to the Chancellor of the Exchequer to explain why this happened and what the Bank intends to do about it.
  • Stable balance of payments on current account: Governments aim for the current account to be satisfactory, so there is not a large deficit. This is usually near to equilibrium. A balance of payments equilibrium on the current account means the country can sustainably finance the current account, which is important for long term growth.

Additionally, the government might have the following macroeconomic objectives.

  • Balanced government budget: This ensures the government keeps control of state borrowing, so the national debt does not escalate. This allows governments to borrow cheaply in the future should they need to, and makes repayment easier.
  • Greater income equality: Income and wealth should be distributed equitably, so the gap between the rich and poor is not extreme. It is generally associated with a fairer society.

The importance of each objective changes over time.

Outline the government's four main macroeconomic objectives.
Potential conflicts and trade-offs between the macroeconomic objectives (generally in the short run).
  • Economic growth vs inflation: A growing economy is likely to experience inflationary pressures on the average price level. This is especially true when there is a positive output gap and AD increases faster than AS.
  • Economic growth vs the current account: During periods of economic growth, consumers have high levels of spending. In the UK, consumers have a high marginal propensity to import, so there is likely to be more spending on imports. This leads to a worsening of the current account deficit. However, export-led growth, such as that of China and Germany, means a country can run a current account surplus and have high levels of economic growth.
  • Economic growth vs the government budget deficit: Reducing a budget deficit requires less expenditure and more tax revenue. This would lead to a fall in AD, however, and as a result there will be less economic growth.
  • Economic growth vs the environment: High rates of economic growth are likely to result in high levels of negative externalities, such as pollution and the usage of non-renewable resources. This is because of more manufacturing, which is associated with higher levels of carbon dioxide emissions.
  • Unemployment vs inflation: In the short run, there is a trade-off between the level of unemployment and the inflation rate. This is illustrated with a Phillips curve. As economic growth increases, unemployment falls due to more jobs being created. However, this causes wages to increase, which can lead to more consumer spending and an increase in the average price level. The extent of this trade off can be limited if supply side policies are used to reduce structural unemployment, which will not increase average wages.
Potential conflicts and trade-offs between the macroeconomic objectives (generally in the short run).
Measurement of Macroeconomic Performance.

The performance of an economy can be measured with the following data

  • Real GDP: GDP measures the quantity of goods and services produced in an economy (national output). In other words, a rise in economic growth means there has been an increase in national output. Real GDP is the value of GDP adjusted for inflation. For example, if the economy grew by 4% since last year, but inflation was 2%, real economic growth was 2%.
  • Real GDP per capita: Real GDP per capita is the value of real GDP divided by the population of the country. Capita is another word for ‘head’, so it essentially measures the average output per person in an economy. This is useful for comparing the relative performance of countries.
  • Consumer Prices Index and Retail Prices Index (CPI/RPI): CPI and RPI are the measures of inflation in the UK. The Consumer Prices Index (CPI) measures household purchasing power with the Family Expenditure Survey. The survey finds out what consumers spend their income on. From this, a basket of goods is created. The goods are weighted according to how much income is spent on each item. Petrol has a higher weighting than tea, for example. Each year, the basket is updated to account for changes in spending patterns. RPI is an alternative measure of inflation. Unlike CPI, RPI includes housing costs, such as payments on mortgage interest and council tax. This is why RPI tends to have a higher value than CPI.
  • Measures of unemployment: It is usually difficult to accurately measure unemployment. Some of those in employment might claim unemployment related benefits, whilst some of the unemployed might not reveal this in a survey.The two main measures of unemployment in the UK are:
    • The Claimant Count - This counts the number of people claiming unemployment related benefits, such as Job Seeker’s Allowance (JSA). They have to prove they are actively looking for work.
    • The International Labour Organisation (ILO) and the UK Labour Force Survey (LFS) - The LFS is taken on by the ILO. It directly asks people if they meet the following criteria:
      • Been out of work for 4 weeks
      • Able and willing to start working within 2 weeks
      • Workers should be available for 1 hour per week. Part time unemployment is included.
      Since the part-time unemployed are less likely to claim unemployment benefit, this method gives a higher unemployment figure than the Claimant Count.
    • Measures of productivity: Productivity is defined as output per worker per period of time. It measures how efficient production is. Productivity increases if more output can be produced with fewer units of input. For example, labour productivity is measured in the UK by output per hour. In the first quarter of 2015, it grew by 0.3%.
    • Balance of payments on current account: The balance of payments is a record of all financial transactions made between consumers, firms and the government from one country with other countries. It states how much is spent on imports, and what the value of exports is. Exports are goods and services sold to foreign countries, and are positive in the balance of payments. This is because they are an inflow of money. Imports are goods and services bought from foreign countries, and they are negative on the balance of payments. They are an outflow of money.The balance of payments is made up of:
      • The current account
      • The capital account
      • The official financing account.
Measurement of Macroeconomic Performance.
Determinants of SRAS.
  • The SRAS curve shifts when there are changes in the conditions of supply. The price level and production costs are the main determinants of SRAS.
    • The cost of employment might change, e.g. wages, taxes, and labour productivity. If costs increase, supply will shift inwards from SRAS1 to SRAS3.
    • The cost of other inputs e.g. raw materials, commodity prices, and the exchange rate if products are imported. A stronger currency reduces the price of imports, so imported products will be cheaper. This would shift the AS curve outwards, from SRAS1 to SRAS2.
    • Government regulation or intervention, such as environmental laws or green taxes and business regulation. Business regulation is sometimes called ‘red tape’.
    • There could be a net outward migration of workers, which causes a ‘brain drain’ on the domestic economy, as skilled workers move elsewhere.
    • If there is a fall in business capital spending, supply will fall.
Determinants of SRAS.
Determinants of LRAS.
  • It is assumed that the LRAS curve is vertical
  • This view suggests that output is fixed at each level. All factors of production in the economy are fully employed in the long run.
  • This means that changing AD, such as from AD1 to AD2, only makes a change in the price level (P1 to P2), and it will not change national output (real GDP).
  • The position of the vertical LRAS curve represents the normal capacity level of output of the economy.
  • Factors influencing the long-run AS: The LRAS curve is influenced by changes which affect the quantity or quality of the factors of production. This is equivalent to shifting the PPF curve i.e. when the economy is operating at full capacity.
    • Technological advances: If more money is spent on improving technology, the economy can produce goods in larger volumes or improve the quality of goods and services produced.
    • Changes in relative productivity: A more productive labour and capital input will produce a larger quantity of output with the same quantity of input.
    • Changes in education and skills: This improves the quality of human capital, so it is more productive and more able to produce a wider variety of goods and services
    • Changes in government regulations: Government regulation could limit how productive and efficient a firm can be if it is excessive. This is sometimes referred to as ‘red-tape’.
    • Demographic changes and migration: If there is net inward migration and the majority of the population is of working age, the size of the labour force is going to be significant, which means the economy can increase its output.
    • Competition policy: A more competitive market encourages firms to be more efficient and more productive, so they are not competed out of business. Governments can use effective competition policy to stimulate this in the economy.
  • The Keynesian AS curve
    • The Keynesian view suggests that the price level in the economy is fixed until resources are fully employed. The horizontal section shows the output and price level when resources are not fully employed; there is spare capacity in the economy. The vertical section is when resources are fully employed.
    • Over the spare capacity section, output can be increased (AD1 to AD2) without affecting the price level (stays at P1). In other words, output changes are not inflationary.
    • Once resources are fully employed, an increase in output (AD3 to AD4) will be inflationary (price level increases from P2 to P3).
Determinants of LRAS.
Summary notes for the Economic growth and the economic cycle.
  • The difference between short run and long run growth
    • Short run growth is the percentage increase in a country’s real GDP and it is usually measured annually. It is caused by increases in AD.
    • Long run economic growth occurs when the productive capacity of the economy is increasing and it refers to the trend rate of growth of real national output in an economy over time. It is caused by increases in AS.
    • The potential output of an economy is what the economy could produce if resources were fully employed.
  • Positive and negative output gaps:
    • An output gap occurs when there is a difference between the actual level of output and the potential level of output. It is measured as a percentage of national output.
    • A negative output gap occurs when the actual level of output is less than the potential level of output. This puts downward pressure on inflation. It usually means there is the unemployment of resources in an economy, so labour and capital are not used to their full productive potential. This means there is a lot of spare capacity in the economy.
    • A positive output gap occurs when the actual level of output is greater than the potential level of output. It could be due to resources being used beyond the normal capacity, such as if labour works overtime. If productivity is growing, the output gap becomes positive. It puts upwards pressure on inflation. Countries, such as China and India, which have high rates of inflation due to fast and increasing demand, are associated with positive output gaps.
  • Illustrating an output gap:
    • Classical economists believe markets clear in the long run, so there is full employment. They believe there are output gaps in the short run. A negative output gap is between Ye and Y1, and a positive output gap is between Ye and Y2.
    • Click to view the Diagram (Page 3)
  • The business cycle:
    • This refers to the stage of economic growth that the economy is in.
    • The economy goes through periods of booms and busts.
    • Real output increases when there are periods of economic growth. This is the recovery stage.
    • The boom is when economic growth is fast, and it could be inflationary or unsustainable.
    • During recessions, the real output in the economy falls, and there is negative economic growth.
    • During recessions, governments might increase spending to try and stimulate the economy. This could involve spending on welfare payments to help people who have lost their jobs, or cutting taxes.
    • During periods of economic growth, governments may receive more tax revenue since consumers will be spending more and earning more. They may decide to spend less, since the economy does not need stimulating, and fewer people will be claiming benefits.
  • Characteristics of a boom:
    • High rates of economic growth
    • Near full capacity or positive output gaps
    • (Near) full employment
    • Demand-pull inflation
    • Consumers and firms have a lot of confidence, which leads to high rates of investment
    • Government budgets improve, due to higher tax revenues and less spending on welfare payments
  • Characteristics of a recession:
    • In the UK, a recession is defined as negative economic growth over two consecutive quarters. The characteristics are:
      • Negative economic growth
      • Lots of spare capacity and negative output gaps
      • Demand-deficient unemployment
      • Low inflation rates
      • Government budgets worsen due to more spending on welfare payments and lower tax revenues
      • Less confidence amongst consumers and firms, which leads to less spending and investment
Summary notes for the Economic growth and the economic cycle.
A table showing the costs and benefits of economic growth.

Click here to view the table

A table showing the costs and benefits of economic growth.
Summary notes for employment and unemployment.
  • Measures of unemployment It is usually difficult to accurately measure unemployment. Some of those in employment might claim unemployment related benefits, whilst some of the unemployed might not reveal this in a survey.The two main measures of unemployment in the UK are:
    • The Claimant Count - This counts the number of people claiming unemployment related benefits, such as Job Seeker's Allowance (JSA). They have to prove they are actively looking for work.
      • Evaluating the Claimant Count: - Not every unemployed person is eligible for, or bothers claiming JSA. Those with partners on high incomes will not be eligible for the benefit, even if they are unemployed. Although there may be instances of people claiming the benefit whilst they are employed, the method generally underestimated the level of unemployment.
    • The International Labour Organisation (ILO) and the UK Labour Force Survey (LFS) The LFS is taken on by the ILO. It directly asks people if they meet the following criteria:
      • Been out of work for 4 weeks
      • Able and willing to start working within 2 weeks
      • Workers should be available for 1 hour per week. Part time unemployment is included.
      Since the part time unemployed are less likely to claim unemployment benefit, this method gives a higher unemployment figure than the Claimant Count.
  • The concepts of voluntary and involuntary unemployment
    Voluntary unemployment occurs when someone chooses not to work at the current wage rate. This could be encouraged in welfare payments are generous relative to real wages. A high income tax rate might also discourage people from participating in the labour market.A person is involuntarily unemployed when they are willing and able to work at the current wage rate, but they cannot find work. It is usually cyclical, since it is caused by a fall in AD. Moreover, it occurs when there is an excess supply of labour, which ‘sticky wages' are unable to correct. When an economy experiences involuntary unemployment, it is not operating at full employment.
  • The significance of changes in the rates of:
    • Employment and Unemployment:
      • Consumers If consumers are unemployed, they have less disposable income and their standard of living may fall as a result. There are also psychological consequences of losing a job, which could affect the mental health of workers.
      • Firms With a higher rate of unemployment, firms have a larger supply of labour to employ from. This causes wages to fall, which would help firms reduce their costs. However, with higher rates of unemployment, since consumers have less disposable income, consumer spending falls so firms may lose profits. Producers which sell inferior goods might see a rise in sales. It might cost firms to retrain workers, especially if they have been out of work for a long time.
      • Workers With unemployment, there is a waste of workers' resources. They could also lose their existing skills if they are not fully utilised.
      • The government If the unemployment rate increases, the government may have to spend more on JSA, which incurs an opportunity cost because the money could have been invested elsewhere. The government would also receive less revenue from income tax, and from indirect taxes on expenditure, since the unemployed have less disposable income to spend.
      • Society There is an opportunity cost to society, since workers could have produced goods and services if they were employed. There could be negative externalities in the form of crime and vandalism, if the unemployment rate increases.
    • Inactivity: The economically inactive are those who are not actively looking for jobs. These could include carers for the elderly, disabled or children, or those who have retired. Some workers are discouraged from the labour market, since they have been out of work for so long that they have stopped looking for work. If the number of the economically inactive increases, the size of the labour force may decrease, which means the productive potential of the economy could fall.
  • The causes of unemployment:
    • Structural unemployment This occurs with a long term decline in demand for the goods and services in an industry, which costs jobs. This is especially true of jobs in industries such as car manufacturing, where labour is replaced by capital (this is also called technological unemployment). Moreover, the decline of the coal and ship building industries in the UK, led to a great deal of structural unemployment. This type of unemployment is worsened by the geographical and occupational immobility of labour. If workers do not have the transferable skills to move to another industry, or if it is not easy to move somewhere jobs are available, then those facing structural unemployment are likely to remain unemployed in the long run.
    • Frictional unemployment This is the time between leaving a job and looking for another job. It is common for there to always be some frictional unemployment, and it is not particularly damaging since it is only temporary. For example, it could be the time between graduating from university and finding a job. This is why it is rare to get 100% employment: there will always be people moving between jobs.
    • Seasonal unemployment This occurs during certain points in the year, usually around summer and winter. During the summer, more people will be employed in the tourist industry, when demand increases.
    • Demand deficiency (cyclical unemployment) This is caused by a lack of demand for goods and services, and it usually occurs during periods of economic decline or recessions. It is linked to a negative output gap. Firms are either forced to close or make workers redundant, because their profits are falling due to decreased consumer spending, and they need to reduce their costs. This then causes output to fall in several industries. This type of unemployment could actually be caused by increases in productivity, which means each worker can produce a higher output, and therefore fewer workers are needed to produce the same quantity of goods and services.
    • Real wage unemployment
      • Wages above the market equilibrium may cause unemployment. This is because the supply of labour exceeds demand. Classical economists argue that by letting wages fall to the equilibrium level, there would be no unemployment.
      • In the diagram, the point at ‘minimum price' reflects the NMW. This causes unemployment of Q1 – Q3.
      • Click to view the Diagram (Page 35)
      • If demand then shifts to the left, due to a fall in consumer spending for example, there would be more unemployment since wages are not able to adjust.
      • Classical economists would argue that by letting wages be flexible, by removing trade union power and removing the NMW, wages could fall and unemployment would fall to 0.
      • However, cutting wages during times of weak consumer spending would cause further falls in consumer spending, and there would be even lower economic growth. Moreover, the classical economist argument is made on the assumption of a perfectly competitive market, which is not true in reality.
  • How changes in the rest of the world affect employment and unemployment in the UK:
    • Globalisation also contributes to structural unemployment, since production in the manufacturing sectors, such as in clothing or motor cars, moves abroad to countries with lower labour costs. This means that workers trained for these jobs will become unemployed, because the industry has declined in size or has been removed from the economy.
    • Migrants are usually of working age, so the supply of labour at all wage rates tends to increase with more migration. There could be more competition to get a job due to the rise in the size of the working population. Migrants tend to be of working age, and many are looking for a job. Migrants tend to bring high quality skills to the domestic workforce, which can increase productivity and increase the skillset of the labour market. This could increase global competitiveness.
  • The consequences of unemployment:
    • If consumers are unemployed, they have less disposable income and their standard of living may fall as a result.
    • There are also psychological consequences of losing a job, which could affect the mental health of workers.
    • With a higher rate of unemployment, firms have a larger supply of labour to employ from. This causes wages to fall, which would help firms reduce their costs.
    • However, with higher rates of unemployment, since consumers have less disposable income, consumer spending falls so firms may lose profits. Producers which sell inferior goods might see a rise in sales.
    • It might cost firms to retrain workers, especially if they have been out of work for a long time.
    • With unemployment, there is a waste of workers' resources. They could also lose their existing skills if they are not fully utilised.
    • If the unemployment rate increases, the government may have to spend more on JSA, which incurs an opportunity cost because the money could have been invested elsewhere.
    • The government would also receive less revenue from income tax, and from indirect taxes on expenditure, since the unemployed have less disposable income to spend.
    • There is an opportunity cost to society, since workers could have produced goods and services if they were employed.
    • There could be negative externalities in the form of crime and vandalism, if the unemployment rate increases.
  • The natural rate of unemployment
    • The unemployment rate when the labour market is at equilibrium is called the natural rate of unemployment. It is a concept developed by Milton Friedman and Edmund Phelps.
    • This type of unemployment is the difference between those who are willing to have a job at the current market wage level, and those who are willing and able to have a job. It is caused by supply-side factors.
    • It includes the frictional level of unemployment, structural unemployment and workers who do not have the necessary skills for a job.
    • It is also called the NAIRU: non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment. It means that inflation does not have a tendency to increase at this unemployment rate. Sometimes, it is also referred to as the full level of employment, since there is no demand-deficient unemployment.
    • In the long run, the unemployment rate reverts to the natural rate of unemployment. However, it can fluctuate around this rate due to economic variables.
Summary notes for employment and unemployment.
Notes on inflation, deflation, Fisher’s equation of exchange and the Quantity Theory of Money
  • Inflation is the sustained rise in the general price level over time. This means that the cost of living increases and the purchasing power of money decreases.
  • Deflation is the opposite, where the average price level in the economy falls. There is a negative inflation rate.
  • Disinflation is the falling rate of inflation. This is when the average price level is still rising, but to a slower extent. This means goods and services are relatively cheaper now than a year ago, and the purchasing power of money has increased.
    • For example, a 4% increase in the price level between 2014 and 2015 would be inflation. A change from 4% to 2% is still inflation, but there has been disinflation where the price rise has slowed. If the change in the price level is now -3%, there is deflation.
  • It is important to note that deflationary government policies aim to reduce AD, and do not necessarily result in deflation.

Causes of inflation

  • Demand pull: This is from the demand side of the economy. When aggregate demand is growing unsustainably, there is pressure on resources. Producers increase their prices and earn more profits. It usually occurs when resources are fully employed.
    The main triggers for demand pull inflation are:
    • A depreciation in the exchange rate, which causes imports to become more expensive, whilst exports become cheaper. This causes AD to rise.
    • Fiscal stimulus in the form of lower taxes or more government spending. This means consumers have more disposable income, so consumer spending increases.
    • Lower interest rates makes saving less attractive and borrowing more attractive, so consumer spending increases.
    • High growth in UK export markets means UK exports increase and AD increases.
  • Cost push: This is from the supply side of the economy, and occurs when firms face rising costs. This occurs when:
    • Changes in world commodity prices can affect domestic inflation. For example, raw materials might become more expensive if oil prices rise. This increases costs of production.
    • Labour becomes more expensive. This could be through trade unions, for example.
    • Expectations of inflation- if consumers expect prices to rise, they may ask for higher wages to make up for this, and this could trigger more inflation.
    • Indirect taxes could increase the cost of goods such as cigarettes or fuel, if producers choose to pass the costs onto the consumer.
    • Depreciation in the exchange rate, which causes imports to become more expensive and pushes up the price of raw materials.
    • Monopolies, using their dominant market position to exploit consumers with high prices.

The effects of inflation on:

  • Consumers
    • Those on low and fixed incomes are hit hardest by inflation, due to its regressive effect, because the cost of necessities such as food and water becomes expensive. The purchasing power of money falls, which affects those with high incomes the least.
    • If consumers have loans, the value of the repayment will be lower, because the amount owed does not increase with inflation, so the real value of debt decreases.
  • Firms
    • Low interest rates means borrowing and investing is more attractive than saving profits. With high inflation, interest rates are likely to be higher, so the cost of investing will be higher and firms are less likely to invest.
    • Workers might demand higher wages, which could increase the costs of production for firms.
    • Firms may be less price competitive on a global scale if inflation is high. This depends on what happens in other countries, though.
    • Unpredictable inflation will reduce business confidence, since they are not aware of what their costs will be. This could mean there is less investment.
  • The government
    • The government will have to increase the value of the state pension and welfare payments, because the cost of living is increasing.
  • Workers
    • Real incomes fall with inflation, so workers will have less disposable income.
    • If firms face higher costs, there could be more redundancies when firms try and cut their costs.

The effects of deflation

  • The UK experienced a short period of deflation in April 2015, when prices fell by 0.1%. Before this, the UK experienced deflation in the 1960s.
  • Deflation causes the real value of money to increase. For example, if average prices fell by 5%, then spending £1 today will buy 5% more.
  • Deflation discourages spending because it makes goods and services cheaper in the future. Consumers believe that, if goods are cheaper tomorrow, it is not worthwhile buying them today.
  • This can result in economic decline and increasing rates of unemployment. Deflation can worsen the effects of economic stagnation.
  • Deflation makes the real value of debt higher. This means that consumers with high levels of debt find it harder to pay it off, since a larger proportion of their income will be used to make repayments.
  • Since consumers have less disposable income, the level of spending in the economy falls, which worsens the effects of a recession. Wages are also likely to fall, since firms make lower profits.
  • There could be even lower growth and worse rates of unemployment if the real interest rate increases. If the interest rate is 0% and the deflation rate is 5%, the real interest rate is 5%. This means that saving is encouraged, because the rate of return is higher.

Fisher’s equation of exchange and the Quantity Theory of Money

  • The Quantity Theory of Money states that there is inflation if the money supply increases at a faster rate than national income.
  • Fisher's equation of exchange is MV = PQ. T can be used instead of Q, although using Q means that PQ is nominal national income and overcomes the difficulties associated with the inclusion of intermediate transactions.
  • M refers to the supply of money, V is the velocity of circulation, P is the price level and Q is the quantity of real goods sold (real GDP). T represents transactions. However, it is difficult to measure T.
  • Therefore, the value of expenditure on goods equals the value of total output (MV=PQ).
Notes on inflation, deflation, Fisher’s equation of exchange and the Quantity Theory of Money
A2 Financial Markets and Monetary Policy

A2 Financial Markets and Monetary Policy
A2 Fiscal and Supply Side Policies

A2 Fiscal and Supply Side Policies
What are the characteristics of globalisation?

Globalisation is the ever increasing integration of the world’s local, regional and national economies into a single, international market.

It involves the free trade of goods and services, the free movement of capital and labour and the free interchange of technology and intellectual capital.

With the spread of globalisation came more trade between nations and more transfers of capital including FDI (foreign direct investment). Moreover, brands developed globally and labour has been divided between several countries. There is more migration and more countries participate in global trade, such as China and India, as well as higher levels of investment. Additionally, countries have become more interdependent, so the performance of their own country depends on the performance of other countries. This could be seen in 2008 and 2009, when the effects of the global credit crunch spread across the globe.

What are the characteristics of globalisation?
What are the factors contributing to globalisation in the last 50 years?
  • Trade in goods:
    • Developing countries have acquired the capital and knowledge to manufacture goods. The efficient forms of transport make it easier and cheaper to transfer goods across international borders. Some developing countries have the cost advantage of cheaper labour, so MNCs move their production abroad. This causes developed countries to trade with these developing countries, so they can access the same manufactured goods.
  • Trade in services:
    • For example, the trade of tourism, call centre services, and software production (particularly from India) has increased from developing countries to developed countries.
  • Trade liberalisation:
    • The growing strength and influence of organisations such as the World Trade Organisation (WTO), which advocates free trade, has contributed to the decline in trade barriers.
  • Multinational Corporations (MNCs):
    • MNCs are organisations which own or control the production of goods and services in multiple countries. They have used marketing to become global, and by growing, they have been able to take advantage of economies of scale, such as risk-bearing economies of scale. The spread of technological knowledge and economies of scale has resulted in lower costs of production.
  • International financial flows:
    • For example, the flow of capital and FDI across international borders has increased. China and Malaysia have financed their growth with capital flows. Also, the foreign ownership of firms has increased. There has been more investment in factories abroad.
    • The removal of capital controls has facilitated this increase.
  • Communications and IT:
    • The spread of IT has resulted in it becoming easier and cheaper to communicate, which has led to the world being more interconnected. There are better transport links and the transfer of information has been made easier. This is sometimes referred to as the 'death of distance'.
  • Containerisation:
    • This has resulted in it becoming cheaper to ship goods across the world. This causes prices to fall, which helps make the market more competitive. Containerisation means that goods are distributed in standard sized containers, so it is easier to load and cheaper to distribute using rail and sea transport. This helps to meet world demand. Cargo can be moved twenty times as fast as before, economies of scale can be exploited and less labour is required.
    • However, it is mainly MNCs which have been able to exploit this, and it could result in some structural unemployment.
    • This video provides a good background to containerisation https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Gn7IoT_WSRA.
What are the factors contributing to globalisation in the last 50 years?
The consequences of globalisation

Individual countries

There could be trade imbalances between countries. For example, the US runs a large current account deficit with China, who has a large current account surplus.

There could be imbalances and inequalities in consumers’ and countries’ accesses to health, education and markets.

Within individual countries, there could be income and wealth inequalities if the benefits and costs of globalisation are not evenly spread. This is evident in China, where the population in the rural and urban areas have vastly different levels of income and living standards.

Culture could spread across the globe. Some might say this has weakened culture and that there has been a loss of cultural diversity due to global brands. However, others will argue that the spread of culture has been positive and helped to improve their quality of life.

Governments

Some governments might lose their sovereignty due to the increase in international treaties. Individual states would find it hard to resist the force of them, and if countries become members of organisations, they will have to abide by their rules.

Producers and consumers

Consumers and producers can earn the benefits of specialisation and economies of scale as firms become larger.

Firms operate in a more competitive environment, which encourages them to lower their average costs and become more efficient.

Producers can also make their average costs lower by switching production to places with cheaper labour. The spread of technology has resulted in firms being able to employ the most advanced machines and production methods.

Globalisation leads to a general increase in world GDP, which increases consumer living standards and helps lift people out of absolute poverty. However, it is hard to calculate the proportion of growth which was due to globalisation.

This rise in average consumer incomes could offset some of the lower costs of production for firms. This is especially due to increased demand from China, which has contributed to the increase in price of commodities, and therefore pushed up the price of raw materials.

Some consumers gain more from globalisation than others. Globally, there are fewer people in extreme poverty, but this has not been the case in Sub-Saharan Africa. There could be increased inequality. Oxfam research in 2015 suggested that 1% of the world own more than the rest of the world (more information here http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/business-30875633).

Consumers could take advantage of a wider range of goods and services because of the increased availability of goods and services. However, some services might become homogenised, such as hotels.

Workers

Workers can take advantage of job opportunities across the globe, rather than just in their home country.

However, there could be structural unemployment. For example, in the UK after the collapse of the ship building and mining industries, there was a lot of structural unemployment. This is because it was more efficient for manufacturing to occur abroad, so production shifted to lower labour cost nations.

However, it could be argued that countries would have had the change from agriculture to manufacturing to services anyway, and globalisation simply sped it up.

When production shifts to lower labour cost countries, the creation of jobs could be seen as either beneficial or harmful. On one hand, MNCs could be exploiting their labour and providing poor working conditions in, for example, sweatshops. On the other hand, working in a sweatshop might provide a higher, more stable income than any alternatives, such as agriculture.

The environment

Although industrialisation and increased consumer living standards might lead to more pollution through increased production and increased car use, consumers might show more concern towards the environment as their average incomes increase.

Some of the negative impacts on the environment could include deforestation, water scarcity and land degradation.

The consequences of globalisation
What is the distinction between absolute and comparative advantage?

A country has absolute advantage in the production of a good or service if it can produce it using fewer resources and at a lower cost than another country.

Comparative advantage occurs when a country can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another country. This means they have to give up producing less of another good than another country, using the same resources.

Countries can specialise where they have comparative advantage. This increases economic welfare.

What is the distinction between absolute and comparative advantage?
Resource on 4.2.6.2 Trade.

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Resource on 4.2.6.2 Trade.
Resource on 4.2.6.3 the Balance of Payments.

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Resource on 4.2.6.3 the Balance of Payments.
Resource on 4.2.6.4 Exchange rate systems.

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Resource on 4.2.6.4 Exchange rate systems.
Resource on 4.2.6.5 Economic growth and development.

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Resource on 4.2.6.5 Economic growth and development.
All A2 Macro Definitions
Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.

Click here to view the level of response marking grid

Levels of response marking grid for any 25 mark question.
(A* Student Exemplars) 25 marker structure + notes
  1. Paragraph Structure
    • Point: address question + context (make it real)
    • Cause: Why?
    • Consequence : effect-so what?
    • Evaluation + Support (given that)
  2. Intro stucture
    • Introduce the points you'll discuss (background info).
    • Definition
  • My takeaway of markscheme
    • Heavy use of economic terminology - key words - used CORRECTLY THOUGH!!
    • Use the data / info given to you in the data sheet - it's application of knowledge (if used property)
    • Concise chains of analysis with reasons why
    • MASSIVE AMOUNTS of CONTEXT
    • Need a conclusion.
      → but also, context in the conclusion (LOTS)
  • My 25 marker structure
    1. Intro: definition, briefing of Q (not always in a cringe way!), context.
    2. 3 paragraphs: definition, analysis, diagram, however (eval) + "given that".
    3. Conclusion: Your final opinion (based on the evidence presented) & give a new reason why to support
      "However" 3x! With given that 3x!
  • Notes:
    • Aim for 2/3 diagrams
    • Aim for 3-4 evaluations (MIN) ideally 5-6
    • Never have a "however" without "given that"
    • 3x eval in conclusion is a must!
(A* Student Exemplars) 25 marker structure + notes
(A* Student Exemplars) Question 8 Extract F (lines 10-12) states 'The Austrian economist, Friedrich Hayek, highlighted artificially low interest rates and excessive credit creation as being the main causes of cyclical instability. Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that maintaining low interest rates for a sustained period of time may be damaging to the UK's macroeconomic stability. (25 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: ?/25 = A grade (?%)

"Interest rates" refers to a percentage of finance that banks demand in exchange for lending out money to firms or consumers. They can either be fixed, or vary on a regular (e.g. monthly) basis.

Due to the 2008-2009 recession, hysteresis majorly dampened consumer and business confidence, causing a fall in economic activity, such as consumption and investment. To counteract this, the Monetary Policy Committee lowered bank rates to 0.5% in 2009, and further to 0.25% in 2016, in an attempt to boost confidence and consumption.

Lowering interest rates incentivises consumers and firms to increase borrowing as they will have to pay back lower rates (lower cost to borrow). This subsequently leads to a greater amount of capital stock, and hence, according to the new growth theory school of thought, this sustained investment leads to an increase in economic growth (from Y1 to Y2). This sustainable economic growth hence means that, in the long-run, do not damage the UK's macro-economic instability.

However, this depends on if these technological advancements (from investment) are coupled with a rise in skilled labour: given that the New Growth School of thought depends on why such advancements lead to economic growth, it is vital that an increase in investment is coupled with workers who can use such technology effectively/efficiently, if not, then there is only short-run economic growth from Y1 to Y2, which is unsustainable and hence a lack of long-run economic growth makes the economy remain below trend rate of growth - leading to macroeconomic instability.

However, if interest rates were persistently low for a long period of time, consumers would increase their borrowing, and hence they are more able to purchase more expensive goods. Given that the USA is a tech-giant economy, providing many superior goods such as Apple products, a rise in borrowing leads to a rise in net imports as a result. As net exports fall, this worsens the deficit we have on our balance of payments - thus, in the long-run, giving less business and demand to our domestic firms - causing a rise in long-run demand deficient unemployment. As a result, damaging the UK's macroeconomic stability.

However, this depends on the current ___ ___: given that during the financial crisis, interest rates were at a low of 0.5%. Consumers and firms still didn't increase consumption and investment due to hysteresis, hence, will lowering interest rates any further really have an impact?

As the "savings-ratio has fallen and ... consumer borrowing has accelerated rapidly" (source f), the economy will face a large amount of stress due to excess demand.

Given that a rise in consumption leads to a rise in sustained price level and hence inflation, low interest rates will cause the economy to be operating above its trend growth rate, at Point A - with a positive output gap.

Furthermore, the rise in money supply due to Fisher's equation MV = PQ. Provided velocity and quantity of goods remain constant, money supply is directly proportional to price level. Hence, the long-run rise in money supply will lead to a rise in the price level - causing inflation and leading the economy to crash - into a recession (to point B).

Thus the rise in money supply leads to a rise in price and fall in value of money, leading to macroeconomic instability.

However, this depends on if the velocity of money and quantity of goods truly remain constant: the limitation to Fishers' equation cause the reliability of this analysis to fall. Consequently, this depends on the change in interest rates: if it falls only minutely, people won't have as much of an incentive to increase spending, and hence the economy will remain fairly stable.

To conclude, I believe in the long-run the fall in interest rates can lead to the economy falling into a recession due to asset price bubbles and houses being overvalued, such as during the late 1990s Dotcom bubble, and the induced wealth effect of the financial crisis (house value ↓ consumption ↓ AD ↓ recession). Eventually, when this bubble bursts the economy will be left unstable. However, this depends on if the government take precautionary measures to offset this effect, such as a constructionary fiscal policy, leading to a rise in taxes such as corporation or income tax - further reducing the incentive to consume. However, this depends on the tax level that a government set; if it will only be successful if the tax is at a high enough level.

Good links between topics & well written - keep evidence ___ ___.

Original (Essay 3)

(A* Student Exemplars) Question 8 Extract F (lines 10-12) states 'The Austrian economist, Friedrich Hayek, highlighted artificially low interest rates and excessive credit creation as being the main causes of cyclical instability. Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that maintaining low interest rates for a sustained period of time may be damaging to the UK's macroeconomic stability. (25 marks)
(A* Student Exemplars) Discuss how rising oil prices may effect Macro performance. (25 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 22/25 = A* grade (88%)

As oil is a precious commodity the supply of oil being controlled by the OPEC members, such as Venezuela or Saudi Arabia, has a profound impact on the macroeconomic performance of the UK economy. Given that a number of airstrikes on Saudi Arabia oilfields over the years (e.g. 2014, 2020, 2021), have destroyed a large amount of their oil reserves, this had effects on our macroeconomic performance; since our macroeconomic objectives are low unemployment, sustainable economic growth, stable inflation and a balanced current account, rising oil prices would hinder these.

The fall in supply of Saudi Arabian oil reserves (SRAS to SRAS1) led to a rise in the price of oil due to the rise in scarcity; as oil has relatively price inelastic demand due to its prevalent use in our economy, the rise in price levels meant that the demand for oil only fell from Q to Q1 (as seen in figure 1): hence this leads to a rise in inflation in the economy due to the increase in price, which adversely impacts the economic performance, as it counteracts the stable inflation objective (~2%). However, this depends on how quickly the OPEC members are to react to their supply shortage: given that Saudi Arabia's oil prices return to normal within about week, represents the fact that oil supply is quickly fixable and hence rises in price are not long-term: if prices don't rise persistently, inflation will not occur, and hence the macroeconomic performance will not be hindered.

On the other hand, if oil prices rise and as an economy we seek to look for alternative substitutes to oil, such as renewable energy like wind turbines or solar energy, this could benefit the economy if the government increases expenditure on research and development into sustainable energy, this could increase the level of employment in the economy, by reducing demand deficient unemployment, through increasing job prospects; such as in-house maintenance for new infrastructure, e.g. more tertiary sector employment such as scientists, management, consultants or physicists. By reducing the level of spare capacity in the economy, we are able to shift out our productive potential - leading to sustainable economic growth as well as a rise in employment. This is achieving two of our macroeconomic objectives as a result. However, this depends on how long it takes to be able to use the substitute energy resources: given that the onshore wind farms recently being built will have significant benefits to the economy, such as lower costs and sustainable energy, the developer said it will take up to 2030-2050 to see results. In the meantime, most are still using the higher priced oil. If so, we won't be able to achieve these macroeconomic objectives.

As the UK is a net importer of oil, if the prices of oil rises and we consequently demand less oil, our net imports will fall. Hence our, balanc of payments (comprising of net exports; X-M) will improve. Thus, we will be able to achieve our final maroeconomic objective of a satisfactory current account. On the other hand, if we demand less oil from our trading partners we may no longer be able to achieve technical economies of scale through bulk buying; furthermore, this may debilitate our rapport with our trading partners, and we perhaps will not be able to achieve cheaper imports for other goods or commodities, e.g. if we demand less oil from Brazil who have been net exporters of oil since 2010, they may retaliate and restrict cocoa beans to us, or charge higher prices. Given that coffee is inelastic in demand due to its addictive nature, the UK will be forced to pay these higher prices for other commodities besides oil. Hence, this will exacerbate our current accounts deficit, as our net imports will rise - thus leading to a conflict with the macroeconomic objective of a satisfactory balance of payments. However, this depends on our relationship with other trading partners; if we have a strong relationships with powerhouse economies like the USA or China, this could offset the backlash from economies that may rise prices for other raw materials.

To conclude, I believe that the rise in prices in oil will have little adverse impact on our macroeconomic objectives, given that the OPEC is an oligopolistic cartel that price fixes; if prices were to rise, they would not rise in the long-run, nor would they rise substantially given that the OPEC members all agree on price levels. However, this depends on how inelastic our demand for oil is: if we continue to purchase oil at high prices, the OPEC may set a new price level at the higher price, which would lead to long-run inflation. Additionally, this depends on what stage of the economic cycle we are in; given that we are currently in recovery, the rise in oil prices would not lead to great levels of inflation as compared to if we were in a boom phase, as consumer and business confidence remains low due to hysterysis.

Furthermore, I believe, given that we are in an era of exponential technological growth, rising oil prices would be a boom to our macroeconomic performance - provided that the government choose to invest in renewable energy substitutes.

Good use of key terms throughout with supported/applied analysis + evaluation.To improve look at LR + SR in your AS/AD diagrams.Also consider multiplier when looking at AD + labour diagram for unemployment.

Original (Essay 2)

(A* Student Exemplars) Discuss how rising oil prices may effect Macro performance. (25 marks)
(StuDocu) Costs and benefits of economic growth essay plan

'Discuss the costs and the benefits of economic growth' (25 marks)Essay Plan:

Introduction:

  • Definition of economic growth:
    • Long-term expansion of the productive potential of the economy
    • Increase in the value of national output/national expenditure.
  • Why is it important
    • Major objective of policy for most governments
    • Enables the increase of living standards, the improvement of tax revenues and creates more job opportunities
    • Measures the growth of the economy’s overall well-being.

Paragraph 1: Benefit

  • Point: Economic growth leads to an improvement of living standards that can be measured by real GNI per capita and quality of life
  • Definitions: living standard
  • → Generally, the quality of housing, material comfort, and wealth experienced by an individual or group
  • Evidence:
    • The average worker in the United States would have had to work for 333 hours to buy a fridge in 1894, now, a better fridge can be bought in 20% of that time by an average worker.
    • Life expectancy of a person born in Japan in 1880 was 35 years, the life expectancy in Japan has gone up to 83.84 years in 2017.
  • Explanation:
    • Causes:
      • Increase in AD +AS
      • As average incomes rise and there are more goods and services available for consumption, more people will be able to afford the goods and services, thus resulting in an improvement of living standards.
    • Consequences:
      • Improved resources for education
      • More spending on healthcare
      • Increased tax revenue
      • Enables more consumption
  • Evaluation:
    • Increased income/wealth may not be distributed evenly, and income inequality may increase. Chinese migrants who move to cities have seen rises in living standards while those remaining in the countryside have not seen a massive increase in income

Paragraph 2:Point

  • Growth helps to pull people out of absolute poverty and improve HDI value
  • Definition: HDI value
  • → Developed by the UN to assess the social and economic development levels of countries
    • Mean years of schooling
    • Expected years of schooling
    • life expectancy at birth
    • Gross national income per capita
  • Definition 2: absolute poverty
  • → When a household income that is considerably lower than the median level of income within a country
  • → Absolute poverty thresholds will vary between developed and developing countries
  • → The extreme poverty measure now used by the World Bank is the percentage of the population living on less than $ 1.90 a day (PPP)
  • Evidence:
    • Studies have shown that there is a positive relationship between economic growth and the rate of poverty reduction in developing countries (Pernia and Quilbria, 1999; Tisdell, 2008)
    • The percentage of people living in extreme poverty has fallen across all regions, with the poverty head count ratio reduced by 94% from 1980 to 2015 in rural China
  • Explanation:
    • Causes: improving the living conditions of people who are already poor
      • → Aid, particularly in the medical and scientific areas, is essential in providing better lives, such as the Green Revolution and the eradication of smallpox
      • → Some believe that small changes in the way each of us in affluent nations lives our lives could solve world poverty.
    • Consequences:
      • Better living environments + household situations
      • Improved technology and infrastructure
  • Evaluation:
    • Can only be reduced if the wages of the lowest paid rise faster than the average wage
    • Minimum wages are increased in line with average earnings
    • Economic growth create job opportunities which reduce the level of unemployment

Paragraph 3: Costs

  • Point: Risk of higher inflation and higher interest rates
  • Definition: inflation
  • → Sustained increase in the general price level in an economy
  • Definition 2: interest rates
  • → Cost of borrowing money
  • Evidence: In the UK, government benefits have been indexed linked → economic growth increases in line with inflation → benefit incomes have fallen behind average earnings.
  • Causes:
    • If the growth is due to higher demand (AD shifting to the right) this can lead to demand-pull inflation, causing cost-push inflation
    • To tackle high inflation, governments may increase interest rates
  • Consequences:
    • Boom and bust cycles
    • Rising monetary prices → Impact the cost of living, the cost of doing business, borrowing money, mortgages, corporate
  • Evaluation:
    • It depends on the nature of economic growth
    • If the growth is balanced and sustainable, then it can occur without inflation

Paragraph 4

  • Point: creation of greater inequality of income/wealth
  • Definition: inequality of income
  • → unequal distribution of household or individual income across the various participants in an economy
  • Evidence:
    • The UK has seen a sustained rise in real GDP since the post-war period.
    • However, currently the poorest fifth of society have only 8% of the total income, whereas the top fifth have 40%.
  • Explanation:
    • Causes: growth can benefit a small section of society more than others.
    • Consequences:
      • A wider wealth and income disparity
        • → those with assets and wealth will see a proportionally bigger rise in the market value of rents and their wealth, while those unskilled without wealth may benefit much less from growth.
      • Increased unemployment
  • Evaluation:
    • It depends on the tax rates and the nature of economic growth
    • May only be a short-term problem + economic growth can also be a force for reducing absolute and relative poverty
    • Given that they are likely to experience higher tax revenues, government can address the problem through the payment of benefits
  • Possible trickle-down effect:
    • Rising incomes of those at the upper income levels may result in greater consumption e.g. employing a cleaner or housekeeper, thus creating employment and higher income for those previously unemployed
  • Conclusion: There are clearly some benefits of economic growth, however they are more visible in lower income and less developed countries. Economic growth provides the government possibilities to deal with many severe problems such as poverty, homelessness etc. However, there are also costs of economic growth, which the government can possibly solve with the appropriate use of policies targeting the various natures of economic growths. In conclusion, the benefits outweigh the short-term costs in the long run.
Hint: Search "A table showing the costs and benefits of economic growth." to find a relevant resource.

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(StuDocu) Costs and benefits of economic growth essay plan
(StuDocu)

(StuDocu)
(My Own Examples) Explain the concept of the Natural Rate of Unemployment and the factors which might determine it. (15 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 14/15 = A* grade (93.3%)

Unemployment is where individuals who are willing to work are not employed (working). The Natural Rate of Unemployment (NRU) includes people who are structurally (skills of workforce do not match required skills), frictionally (looking for jobs) and seasonally unemployed. One of the macroeconomic objectives of the UK is to achieve low unemployment. Each type of unemployment that makes up the NRU is influenced by a number of factors. In figure 1 the NRU is illustrated by curve LRPC.

Diagram of LRPC and NAIRU w/ LRPC shift, e.g. education

One way to reduce the NRU is to reduce one integrant type of unemployment; structural unemployment. Structural unemployment is where there is a mismatch between the skills of a workforce and the skills that a firm requires/demands. To reduce this type of unemployment the government could improve occupational flexibility by providing retraining or training - for instance providing a training program to individuals who may have worked on a car production line (but no longer because of automation); giving them skills to become a machinery technician or software engineer. If the training scheme was successful we would see a decrease in the NRU (as structural unemployment falls) which can be seen in the shift from LRPC to LRPC1 in figure 1.

Another way to reduce the NRU is to reduce another integrant type of unemployment; frictional unemployment. Frictional unemployment is where labour is waiting for a job, also called 'search' unemployment. To reduce this type of unemployment the government could improve job availability information. They could do this by implementing legislation on the quality of job advertisements, e.g. clear requirements are shown. Additionally they could invest in one centralised job information system and require all firms to list their new job openings there. If the plans for job advertisement information was successful we would see a decrease in the NRU (as frictional unemployment falls) which can be seen in the shift from LRPC to LRPC1 in figure 1. They could also make it easier to hire and fire workers so that individuals are in frictional unemployment for less time.

V.Good James 14 🙂WWW: V.Well Structured. Clear use of examples.EBI: minor as above (ACE for diagrams, key term of occupational mobility).

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(My Own Examples) Explain the concept of the Natural Rate of Unemployment and the factors which might determine it. (15 marks)
(My Own Examples) Question 7 Extract E (lines 16-17) states 'However, some argue that trying to maintain stable prices and low unemployment could create trade-offs.' With the help of a diagram, explain why a trade-off between price stability and unemployment might occur. (9 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 6/9 = B grade (66.7%)

Unemployment is where people are unwilling and unable to work. Price stability is the aim of keeping our inflation rate at a sustainable level; in the UK our government has it set at 2%. Inflation is an increase in the average price level of goods and services within an economy over a period of time - can be measured using CPI, RPI, RPIX. Within our economy there is a conflict between price stability and unemployment; a decrease in unemployment will result in an increase in inflation.

Figure 1. Short-run Phillips curve diagram with AD/AS (AD shift right)

In figure 1 we see that AD shifts right to AD1. Similarly, we see a movement along the short run Phillips curve (SRPC) from 5% unemployment and 2% unemployment to 3% unemployment and 3% inflation (unemployment decreases and inflation increases). This occurs as when unemployment decreases, the pool of labour is smaller and so workers have larger bargaining power for their wages. This means that workers will receive higher wages resulting in more disposable incomes. The workers/consumers then use this additional disposable income to purchase goods and services. This leads to demand-pull inflation (shown in figure 1 in the movement on the SRPC).

The aforementioned increase in unemployment (shortage of labour) and higher wages would also result in higher costs for firms which would then pass on the cost to consumers; higher cost-push inflation which would result in a shift of the SRPC curve.

Be tentative in definition of unemployment.ebi: Use diagram better (refer to AD curve first then SRPC).
The govt tries to decrease unemployment, e.g. by how...

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(My Own Examples) Question 7 Extract E (lines 16-17) states 'However, some argue that trying to maintain stable prices and low unemployment could create trade-offs.' With the help of a diagram, explain why a trade-off between price stability and unemployment might occur. (9 marks)
(Partial Exemplars) June 2018 Series Questions 12 Evaluate whether achieving a budget surplus is a desirable objective of economic policy. (20 marks)

A/A* grade essay

A budget surplus occurs when government tax receipts are greater than government spending. It means the government can either save money or pay off existing national debt. Some may argue that it is a desirable objective because it prevents future crisis. However, currently the UK is in a recovery position of the boom and bust cycle with only a growth of 0.1% in GDP, fall in the last fiscal quarter stated as "bleak" (Economist) and a fall in inflation rate at 1.3%, less than the government's target of 2% prove that achieving a budget surplus is not desirable at present. Therefore, the extent to which achieving a budget surplus is a desirable objective of economic policy is limited.

Some argue that a budget surplus is desirable because it stops the government may want to reduce and control the inflation rate; which could be done via reducing spending such as welfare payments which will result in a lower confidence from consumers resulting in a shift in AD and GDP inwards, reducing price level i.e. inflation. Therefore, during periods of high inflation, budget surplus is desirable. However, at present, the UK's inflation fell by 0.7% from its target and there was a fall in GDP too. Consequently, a budget surplus right now is not desirable because it will create obstacles making recovery and the path to a boom period difficult. This is because, at present, government spending will create growth and opportunities. In order to do so, the government must run on a deficit, where spending is greater than taxation. This could be done via cuts in corporation tax. A reduction in corporation tax will provide firms with a greater retained profit. This means that their cost of production will decrease, as a result they will be able to produce more, thus elevating increased output. Which will result in a shift outward for SRAS which will balance out the inflationary pressure. Furthermore, firms may wish to employ more workers too. This will result in a shift in AD as unemployment reduces. As a result, confidence will rise causing an increase in spending. The shift in SRAS will balance the inflationary pressure too. Therefore, to a greater extent budget surplus is not a desirable economic policy.

The diagram shows a shift in SRAS2 from SRAS1 because of the cuts in corporation tax, simultaneously, there is a shift to AD2 form AD. because of the firms employing more workers due to cuts in corporation tax to increase output and a result of an increase in spending. As this results in equilibrium the LRAS curve has potential to shift the diagram because

Diagram: Click to view Diagram 1

Note: Can compare this essay against the corresponding 2018 mark scheme on file.

(Partial Exemplars) June 2018 Series Questions 12 Evaluate whether achieving a budget surplus is a desirable objective of economic policy. (20 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 1
  • Question 1 - Using the data in Extract A (Figure 2), calculate, to two decimal places, the mean growth rate for India from 2010 to 2014. (2 marks)
  • Question 2 - Explain why the data in Extract A (Figure 1) show that living standards in India have improved. (4 marks)
  • Question 3 - Extract B (lines 17-19) states ‘India still protects its economy with anti-dumping measures and export subsidies that are designed to promote economic growth.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how export subsidies may help promote economic growth in India. (9 marks)
  • Question 4 - Extract C (lines 2-3) states ‘More recently, India has begun to use more market-based strategies to help its development, including liberalising trade and privatisation.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that greater use of market-based strategies is the best way to improve the economic development of India. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 1
(June 2017) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A (Figure 2), calculate, to two decimal places, the mean growth rate for India from 2010 to 2014. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For the correct answer (7.28%) with the % sign and to 2 d.p.
  • For a correct answer but without the % sign and/or not to 2 d.p.

This question appeared to be quite straightforward in asking students to calculate the mean growth rate for India based upon extracting information from a bar chart and dividing it by the number of years to gain an average. Four-fifths of students were able to do this, however, 10% of students failed to include a percentage sign (%) and therefore did not gain the maximum 2 marks. It was also clear that some students did not have a calculator which impeded performance. The majority of students were able to gain full marks on this question despite this.

(June 2017) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A (Figure 2), calculate, to two decimal places, the mean growth rate for India from 2010 to 2014. (2 marks)
(June 2017) Question 2 Explain why the data in Extract A (Figure 1) show that living standards in India have improved. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that living standards in India have improved
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that India is moving to a higher level of human development

Relevant issues include:

  • Meaning of ‘living standards’
  • Life expectancy has risen from 53.9 years in 1980 to 68.0 years in 2014
  • Expected years of schooling has increased from 6.4 years in 1980 to 11.7 years in 2014
  • The Gross National Income per capita has risen from $1255 in 1980 to $5497 in 2014
  • The HDI score has risen from 0.362 in 1980 to 0.609 in 2014

The first of the new style 4-mark questions asked students to explain why the data showed that India was becoming more economically developed and directed the students to use a particular extract to clarify their statements. More able students easily picked out issues such as life expectancy increasing and linked this to possible improvements in healthcare or GNI per capita rising which could be linked to increased consumption possibilities. Many students failed to fully explain the data or merely trawled the statistics which is not explaining why the data illustrates the proposition and therefore did not reach full marks. It was encouraging that almost three-quarters of students were able to pick up three or four marks on this question which demonstrates centres have been training their students well.

(June 2017) Question 2 Explain why the data in Extract A (Figure 1) show that living standards in India have improved. (4 marks)
(June 2017) Question 3 Extract B (lines 17-19) states ‘India still protects its economy with anti-dumping measures and export subsidies that are designed to promote economic growth.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how export subsidies may help promote economic growth in India. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • A micro diagram showing a rightward shift in supply is expected. The candidate could demonstrate the effects of increased exports, due to the subsidy, using an AD/AS diagram. Provided there is valid explanation, accept either a rightward shift in the SRAS or a rightward shift in AD.

Relevant issues include:

  • Definitions/explanations: export subsidy, exports, trade, economic growth
  • Impact of an export subsidy on price, quantity, the volume and value of trade
  • Impact of an export subsidy on employment in particular industries
  • Linking trade to aggregate demand
  • Impact of export subsidies on investment
  • Linking export subsidies to both short-run and long-run economic growth

The 9-mark question now prompts students to use a suitable diagram to illustrate their answer. Without the use of suitable diagram, students’ responses will be limited and although level 3 is achievable without one, it is unlikely that students will achieve it. Further to this, some students decided to begin by drawing the diagram which isn’t necessary and often impeded responses rather than helping to illustrate the concepts being asked. This question was answered well by students who linked the export subsidy to increased supply or aggregate supply. They further identified the resultant increased competitiveness of export industries and linked this to rising aggregate demand and short-run economic growth. Diagrams used included increasing supply or AS and AD/AS diagrams showing rising AD caused by the rise in exports. All similar diagrams are suitable which is why the prompt allows flexibility in interpretation.

(June 2017) Question 3 Extract B (lines 17-19) states ‘India still protects its economy with anti-dumping measures and export subsidies that are designed to promote economic growth.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how export subsidies may help promote economic growth in India. (9 marks)
(June 2017) Question 4 Extract C (lines 2-3) states ‘More recently, India has begun to use more market-based strategies to help its development, including liberalising trade and privatisation.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that greater use of market-based strategies is the best way to improve the economic development of India. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: economic development, market-based strategies, interventionist strategies
  • Differences and links between economic growth and economic development
  • Examples of market-based strategies such as privatisation, deregulation, liberalisation of foreign trade, removing restrictions on international investment
  • Examples of interventionist strategies such as government spending on infrastructure, protectionist policies and government spending on health and education
  • The pros and cons of market-based approaches to achieving development
  • The pros and cons of interventionist approaches to achieving development
  • Difficulties in measuring development in terms of economic/human development
  • The potential barriers that may hinder India’s development
  • Analysis of the impact of development on formal employment/informal employment
  • The progression from the primary sector to secondary sector employment
  • Whether growth and development are sustainable
  • Economic/social/political freedom arguments
  • Costs of development and/or growth and their impact on living standards
  • The effectiveness of policies that might stimulate development
  • Protectionism as an aid to development
  • The role of investment (domestic and foreign direct)
  • Key industries in development.

This question was based on the new specification topic area of development and asked students to use the context to decide whether India should embark on more "market-based" strategies to help development. This confused some weaker students who did not understand the term ‘market- based’ and some students were also unable to come up with suitable market-based strategies despite two examples (trade liberalisation and privatisation) being provided in the stem. Further to this, some students focussed solely on economic growth without considering the wider aspects of development. Having said this, many stronger students were able to provide examples from their wider knowledge and had also drawn on their learning in the classroom to provide detailed reasons as to why market-based strategies may help (or hinder) India’s development prospects. 12% of students produced level 5 answers for this question.

(June 2017) Question 4 Extract C (lines 2-3) states ‘More recently, India has begun to use more market-based strategies to help its development, including liberalising trade and privatisation.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that greater use of market-based strategies is the best way to improve the economic development of India. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 2
  • Question 5 - Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate, to two decimal places, the mean inflation rate for Japan from 2010 to 2015. (2 marks)
  • Question 6 - Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 4) show that Japan has been less successful than the UK in achieving a stable rate of economic growth. (4 marks)
  • Question 7 - Extract E (lines 9-10) states ‘Improvements in productivity on the supply side of the economy could actually lead to more deflation.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how improvements in productivity could cause deflation. (9 marks)
  • Question 8 - Extract F (lines 19-20) states ‘What is not clear is what should be done if low inflation turns to bad deflation.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that monetary policy is the most effective way of tackling deflation in developed economies such as the UK and Japan. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 2
(June 2017) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate, to two decimal places, the mean inflation rate for Japan from 2010 to 2015. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For a correct answer (0.48%) with the % sign and to 2 d.p.
  • For a correct answer but without the % sign and/or not to 2 d.p.

The second context set of questions was far more popular than the first context which is probably explained by their familiarity with the topics being covered. Here, students were asked to calculate Japan’s average inflation rate over a number of years. The question was straightforward however, the inclusion of some negative pieces of data confused some students. The mean score for this question was 1.55 which was slightly lower than its equivalent question from context 1 (1.73). Twice as many students failed to include the percentage sign (%) in their answer compared to question 1 although it is not clear why, which again limited them to 1 mark.

(June 2017) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate, to two decimal places, the mean inflation rate for Japan from 2010 to 2015. (2 marks)
(June 2017) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 4) show that Japan has been less successful than the UK in achieving a stable rate of economic growth. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that Japan has been less successful than the UK in achieving a stable rate of economic growth
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that Japan has been less successful than the UK in achieving a stable rate of economic growth

Relevant issues include:

  • Meaning of ‘stable rate of economic growth’
  • The highest annual rate of economic growth recorded for the period was for Japan at 4.75% in 2010 compared to the UK’s highest rate of 3.0% in 2014
  • The lowest annual rate of economic growth recorded for the period was for Japan at -0.5% in 2011, compared to the UK’s lowest rate of 0.75% in 2012
  • Japan has a greater range of real GDP growth. It has a high of 4.75% in 2010 compared to a low of -0.5% in 2011, a range of 5.25 percentage points, whereas the UK has a high of 3% in 2014 compared to a low of 0.75% in 2012, a range of 2.25 percentage points
  • The UK never experienced a negative annual percentage change in Real GDP whereas Japan did. Japan experienced a 0.5% negative rate in 2011 and a 0.1% negative rate in 2014 whereas the lowest rate for the UK was 0.75% in 2012.

This question asked students to back up the proposition that the UK’s growth had been more stable than that of Japan. The easiest route to doing this was to consider the range of the data, however, some students attempted a trawl without directly considering what stability meant. It was also expected that students would identify the fact that the UK had maintained positive growth throughout the data whilst Japan’s data showed they had achieved negative average annual growth rates in two of the years displayed. The majority of students scored 3 on this question. Some students who had obviously been influenced by the context analysed the inflation rates of Japan and the UK rather than growth rates which resulted in zero marks.

(June 2017) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 4) show that Japan has been less successful than the UK in achieving a stable rate of economic growth. (4 marks)
(June 2017) Question 7 Extract E (lines 9-10) states ‘Improvements in productivity on the supply side of the economy could actually lead to more deflation.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how improvements in productivity could cause deflation. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • An AD/AS diagram is expected, showing a rightward shift of the AS curve, this can either be LRAS or SRAS.

Relevant issues include:

  • Definitions/explanations: productivity, supply side, deflation, price level
  • Possible causes of increased productivity
  • Relating productivity to supply-side policies (interventionist or market-based)
  • Linking productivity to average costs/costs of the factors of production
  • Linking productivity to increases in the long-run productive potential
  • Explaining the link between falling costs of production and the general price-level.

Question 7 proved quite difficult for students to gain level 3 answers in comparison to the equivalent question on context 1. Students all too often relied on the diagram to analyse the concepts rather than explain the concepts in detail. There was also much more confusion with diagrams than in the previous legacy papers where students created hybrid micro/macro diagrams with incorrect labelling. Many students did not fully understand the concept of productivity or link it to costs and efficiency which impeded answers and many links to deflation were made by simply stating that the ‘diagram’ shows deflation rather than explaining why this may occur.

(June 2017) Question 7 Extract E (lines 9-10) states ‘Improvements in productivity on the supply side of the economy could actually lead to more deflation.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how improvements in productivity could cause deflation. (9 marks)
(June 2017) Question 8 Extract F (lines 19-20) states ‘What is not clear is what should be done if low inflation turns to bad deflation.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that monetary policy is the most effective way of tackling deflation in developed economies such as the UK and Japan. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: monetary policy, deflation, developed economies • deflation and the different types (malign v benign)
  • The effects of deflation
  • The nature of developed economies and different experiences of deflation • the role of interest rates and the transmission mechanism
  • The effects of interest rates on investment, employment, saving and consumption
  • The link between long-term saving and long-term investment
  • The effectiveness of interest rates at very low levels including negative interest rates
  • Consideration of the MPC’s role, primarily in targeting inflation but also in targeting growth
  • Consideration of differences in the two economies which may determine the effectiveness of monetary policy
  • The use of quantitative easing and consideration of its success
  • The possible role of the exchange rate in stimulating the economy
  • The use of fiscal policy and fiscal stimulus
  • Considering how government debt may affect the ability to use fiscal policy
  • Considering how private-sector debt may influence the effectiveness of policies designed to combat deflation
  • Consideration of the potential conflicts in policy
  • The significance of economic shocks and their impact on policies to tackle deflation.

Most students started this question well, correctly explaining the various tools of monetary policy and considering that alternatives such as fiscal policy. Students used the contexts well and many with recent knowledge quoted the current rate of inflation (released on the morning of the exam - 2.9%) as being nowhere near deflation and as a result evaluating that under the current climate, from the UK’s perspective, deflation would not be seen as a priority to avoid. Some answers did fail to fully understand the monetary policy tools though. Many concentrated their answers on interest rates with little consideration of the exchange rate or Q.E. Some students also focussed on supply- side policy without considering this may worsen the problem. Stronger students correctly identified the type of inflation (malign or benign) and the differences in the UK and Japan’s experiences as being key to the policy prescription. Almost 15% of students provided level 5 answers for this question.

(June 2017) Question 8 Extract F (lines 19-20) states ‘What is not clear is what should be done if low inflation turns to bad deflation.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that monetary policy is the most effective way of tackling deflation in developed economies such as the UK and Japan. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 1
  • Question 9 - Explain how government policies can reduce the natural rate of unemployment. (15 marks)
  • Question 10 - Discuss the view that falling unemployment will inevitably lead to trade-offs with other macroeconomic policy objectives. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 1
(June 2017) Question 9 Explain how government policies can reduce the natural rate of unemployment. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis such as a long-run Phillips curve or a labour market diagram should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: unemployment, government policies, the natural rate of unemployment
  • Linking the natural rate to equilibrium in the labour market
  • Identifying the natural rate as being caused by mainly "voluntary" unemployed workers
  • Linking the natural rate to structural, frictional or real wage unemployment
  • Explaining the nature of the supply and demand for labour
  • Explaining the role of supply-side policies in reducing the natural rate
  • Considering interventionist or laissez-faire approaches to reducing the natural rate
  • Explaining the role of wage and inflationary expectations in altering the natural rate
  • Explaining any of the following:
    • The level of JSA
    • The level of taxation
    • The NMW
    • Training schemes
    • Transferable skills
    • Occupational mobility
    • Geographical mobility
    • Trade union reform
    • Labour market flexibility
    • Childcare assistance
    • Reducing hysteresis/long-term unemployment • reducing wage expectations
    • Or any other valid reason.

This question asked for methods by which the natural rate of unemployment could be reduced. Whilst most students began by clearly explaining what the natural rate was, it was clear that some students didn’t understand the concept of the natural rate at all and embarked on answers which focussed on demand management. This was somewhat disappointing and surprising and highlights an area where some centres need to provide more focus. Having said this, many students were able to successfully use micro labour market diagrams to illustrate supply-side effects on labour markets to gain higher marks.

(June 2017) Question 9 Explain how government policies can reduce the natural rate of unemployment. (15 marks)
(June 2017) Question 10 Discuss the view that falling unemployment will inevitably lead to trade-offs with other macroeconomic policy objectives. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams such as the short-run Phillips curve and AD/AS diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: unemployment, macroeconomic policy, macroeconomic goals, trade-offs
  • Explaining the various causes/types of unemployment
  • Distinguishing between involuntary and voluntary unemployment
  • Explaining the different policy responses depending upon the nature of the unemployment
  • Explaining the effects of falling unemployment on:
    • Inflation
    • Economic growth
    • Trade
    • Other goals such as the budget deficit
  • Highlighting the UK’s experience in reducing unemployment whilst maintaining stable inflation and a satisfactory balance of payments position
  • The role of supply-side policies and productivity improvements in avoiding conflicts
  • The effects of economic shocks on the economy and the difficulty of insulating against these
  • The short-run Phillips curve
  • Government policies to reduce unemployment
  • Considering the relative success of recent government policies in the UK or other economies
  • Considering the position of the economy in terms of the proximity to the productive potential
  • Considering the position of the UK in terms of the economic cycle.

Question 10 (along with question 9) proved a very popular choice amongst students although surprisingly the answers to question 10 were not as strong as they could have been. Most student began by explaining the trade-off between unemployment and inflation, often using short-run Phillips curve diagrams to illustrate, however some did not understand why this occurred and merely stated that the diagram showed that it did. Most students considered potential trade-offs with trade but some students muddled this and all too often believed that lower unemployment made the economy more productive and improved exports. The most able students could correctly evaluate that it depended how the unemployment had been reduced or tackled the ‘inevitability’ of the events.

(June 2017) Question 10 Discuss the view that falling unemployment will inevitably lead to trade-offs with other macroeconomic policy objectives. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 2
  • Question 11 - Explain the possible reasons for changes in the pattern of trade between the UK and the rest of the world. (15 marks)
  • Question 12 - Evaluate the measures that might be taken to reduce a deficit on the current account of the UK’s balance of payments. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 2
(June 2017) Question 11 Explain the possible reasons for changes in the pattern of trade between the UK and the rest of the world. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams, such as a tariff diagram, to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: trade, pattern of trade
  • Explaining the pattern in terms of the geographical distribution of UK exports and imports
  • Explaining the significance of trade to the UK economy
  • Explaining the pattern in terms of different goods and services traded
  • Using relevant examples to illustrate the changes in the pattern of trade
  • Explaining comparative advantage and how changes in comparative advantage might be significant
  • Giving a numerical example of comparative advantage
  • Explaining other possible reasons for changes in the pattern of trade, eg:
    • Changes in absolute advantage
    • Changes in protectionist/free trade policies in other countries
    • Joining/changing membership of trading blocs
    • Consideration of trade diversion/trade creation due to trading blocs • exchange rate changes
    • Changing quality/reputation
    • Government intervention distorting markets
    • De-industrialisation
    • Causes and changes in globalisation
    • External shocks
    • Economic development
    • Factor endowment and exploitation of resources
    • Innovation and invention (both product and process)
    • Any other valid argument.

This question, although appearing seemingly straightforward when set, was the worst answered of all the 15-mark questions. Although some students gave logical answers to the determinants of patterns of trade, some focussed on the causes of the trade deficit which was not being asked. Many considered trade volumes rather than who trades what with which nations. Good answers here included "tariff" diagrams to consider either the imposition or removal of tariffs affecting trade flows and trade diversion/creation arguments. An issue which was detected here which was slightly worrying was that some students are incorrectly labelling diagrams so that the axes often had price level and real national output/income instead of price and quantity. A minority of students attempted to evaluate this question which simply is not required in a 15-mark question where no AO4 marks are awarded.

(June 2017) Question 11 Explain the possible reasons for changes in the pattern of trade between the UK and the rest of the world. (15 marks)
(June 2017) Question 12 Evaluate the measures that might be taken to reduce a deficit on the current account of the UK’s balance of payments. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams such as AD/AS diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: the balance of payments, the current account, current account deficit
  • Explaining the difference between a surplus or deficit on current account
  • Explaining the composition of the current account of the balance of payments
  • Explaining the historical experience of the UK’s current account
  • Explaining the causes of deficits
  • Explain possible measures to reduce the deficit such as:
    • Exchange rate manipulation
    • Changes in interest rates potentially affecting the exchange rate
    • Expenditure-reducing policies
    • Expenditure-switching policies
    • The role of protectionism
    • Government role in export promotion/trade deals
    • The role of fiscal and monetary policy
    • Supply-side improvements which might begin to provide a solution to the weakness, such as:
      • Competitiveness/unit labour costs
      • Investment (human and physical capital)
      • Technology, R&D and productivity
      • Infrastructure
  • Consideration of the UK’s membership of the WTO and EU restricting its ability to use protectionism
  • Consideration of whether the deficit is a problem if the capital account is in surplus
  • Consideration of the impact on other macroeconomic goals of trying to reduce the deficit on the current account of the balance of payments.

Here students performed the best of all the essay questions. Most students were awarded a level 4 answer or above and were accurately able to give either suitable expenditure reducing, expenditure switching or supply-side possibilities to reduce the trade deficit. Most students accurately used diagrams and fully analysed the issues. One issue that was detected was that some students, when describing depreciation of currency was that some students do not understand how this can be done other than through interest rate manipulation. Often, students (correctly) identified the fact that lower interest rates could cause depreciation, however they failed to consider the full impacts of an interest rate fall on consumption and the possibility that imports may rise. Stronger students considered the UK’s position within the EU and the possibility that protectionism may be used in the future. Sadly, a very small minority of students still do not understand the difference between the balance of payments and the budget deficit which led to some very confused responses.

(June 2017) Question 12 Evaluate the measures that might be taken to reduce a deficit on the current account of the UK’s balance of payments. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 3
  • Question 13 - Explain how changes in both government spending and taxation might affect the level of economic activity. (15 marks)
  • Question 14 - Evaluate the economic consequences for the UK economy of a significant shift in the burden of taxation from direct taxes to indirect taxes. (25 marks)
(June 2017) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 3
(June 2017) Question 13 Explain how changes in both government spending and taxation might affect the level of economic activity. (15 marks)

(June 2017) Question 13 Explain how changes in both government spending and taxation might affect the level of economic activity. (15 marks)
(June 2017) Question 14 Evaluate the economic consequences for the UK economy of a significant shift in the burden of taxation from direct taxes to indirect taxes. (25 marks)

(June 2017) Question 14 Evaluate the economic consequences for the UK economy of a significant shift in the burden of taxation from direct taxes to indirect taxes. (25 marks)
Summary of June 2017 Paper 2 National and international economy

Summary of June 2017 Paper 2 National and international economy
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 1
  • Question 1 - Using the data in Extract A (Figure 1), calculate the change in the effective exchange rate index, as a percentage, between November 2015 (point A) and November 2016 (point B). Give your answer to two decimal places. (2 marks)
  • Question 2 - Extract B describes the trade figures as ‘disappointing’. Explain how the data in Extract A (Figure 2) show that the UK’s trade performance has been ‘disappointing’ given the fall in the value of the pound since November 2015. (4 marks)
  • Question 3 - Extract C (lines 8-9) states ‘Trade deficits and surpluses may be self-correcting in a floating exchange rate system’. With the help of a diagram showing the supply of and demand for currency, explain how a floating exchange rate may help to correct a trade surplus. (9 marks)
  • Question 4 - Extract B (lines 19–21) states ‘Although some argue that a current account deficit is not a problem, others point to the worryingly large and persistent nature of the deficit.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, assess the impact of a persistent current account deficit on the macroeconomic performance of the UK economy. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 1
(June 2018) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A (Figure 1), calculate the change in the effective exchange rate index, as a percentage, between November 2015 (point A) and November 2016 (point B). Give your answer to two decimal places. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For the correct answer (-20.43%) with the % sign and to two decimal places.
  • For a correct answer (-20.43%) but without the % sign and/or not to two decimal places. Also, for an answer of 20.43% but without an indication of a minus (-), fall or depreciation.

Note:

  • The candidate must include the ‘minus’ (-) sign or state that this is a ‘fall’ or ‘depreciation’ for the full 2 marks.

This question appeared to be quite straightforward in calculating a percentage change between two points in a chart. Most students were able to do this, to 2 decimal places, as asked in the question, however many failed to realise this was a fall or depreciation. The majority of students gained 2 marks, however many missed out by not indicating it was a fall or placing a negative sign on the calculation. It is important that students look out for the requirements of the question when formulating their answers.

(June 2018) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A (Figure 1), calculate the change in the effective exchange rate index, as a percentage, between November 2015 (point A) and November 2016 (point B). Give your answer to two decimal places. (2 marks)
(June 2018) Question 2 Extract B describes the trade figures as ‘disappointing’. Explain how the data in Extract A (Figure 2) show that the UK’s trade performance has been ‘disappointing’ given the fall in the value of the pound since November 2015. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that the UK’s trade performance has been disappointing given the fall in the value of the pound
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that the UK’s trade performance has been disappointing given the fall in the value of the pound.

Relevant issues include:

  • Explanation of relevant terms/phrases such as ‘fall in the value of the pound’, ‘disappointing trade performance’
  • Explaining that a fall in the exchange rate should make the UK more internationally competitive, increasing exports, decreasing imports and reducing the trade deficit
  • The balance of total trade is in deficit throughout the whole of the period from November 2015 to November 2016, indicating the value of exports has not overtaken the value of imports
  • The total trade deficit ranges from £0.3bn in December 2015 to £5.3bn in September 2016, indicating either a falling value of exports or rising value of imports
  • The total trade deficit ends larger than it started. In November 2015, the deficit was £2.5bn whereas in November 2016 it was £4.8bn
  • The goods balance is in deficit throughout the whole period from November 2015 to November 2016 indicating the value of exports of goods has not overtaken the value of imports of goodh
  • The goods deficits range from £8bn in December 2015 to £13.8bn in September 2016
  • The deficit in goods ends larger than it started. In November 2015, the deficit in goods was £9.5bn whereas in November 2016 it was £12.1bn
  • The balance in services did not improve over the whole period. It started at £8bn in November 2015 and ended at £8bn in November 2016.

Note:

  • Accept figures that are within a range of + or - £0.5bn.

Here, students were asked to explain why the data was disappointing given the fall in the value of the pound. The data included information on goods, services and the overall goods balance. Students could often quote bits of data, but some failed to relate this back to why the depreciation led these figures to be disappointing. Many students were also confused over what constitutes a smaller or larger deficit. It is worthwhile getting students to focus on the “why” aspect of the question and match the data to the proposition.

(June 2018) Question 2 Extract B describes the trade figures as ‘disappointing’. Explain how the data in Extract A (Figure 2) show that the UK’s trade performance has been ‘disappointing’ given the fall in the value of the pound since November 2015. (4 marks)
(June 2018) Question 3 Extract C (lines 8-9) states ‘Trade deficits and surpluses may be self-correcting in a floating exchange rate system’. With the help of a diagram showing the supply of and demand for currency, explain how a floating exchange rate may help to correct a trade surplus. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • A demand and supply diagram is expected showing a rise in demand and/or a fall in supply of the currency. Axes vary on the Y axes of this diagram. Accept anything suitable that indicates the exchange rate but not “price” on its own.

Relevant issues include:

  • Definitions/explanations: exchange rate, floating exchange rate, correcting a trade surplus
  • Explaining how a trade surplus puts upward pressure on the exchange rate
  • Describing effects on the supply and demand for the currency
  • Describing an appreciation of the currency leading to a rise in export prices and a fall in the price of imports and explaining the subsequent impact on the volume and/or value of exports and imports
  • Considering the elasticity of demand for imports and exports and the (inverse) J curve effect.
  • Linking the falling value of exports and/or rising value of imports to a reduction in the trade surplus.

Question 3 required students to explain why a trade surplus could be self-correcting in a floating exchange rate system. Better students described what a floating exchange rate was, described a surplus and then successfully used a currency diagram to explain the possible upward pressure on the exchange rate, followed by the effects on imports and exports. Where this was done well it had clear chains of logical analysis with a step by step approach. However, some students were unable to link the surplus to the effect on the currency or were unable to use currency diagrams and instead reverted to AD/AS analysis which was largely irrelevant.

(June 2018) Question 3 Extract C (lines 8-9) states ‘Trade deficits and surpluses may be self-correcting in a floating exchange rate system’. With the help of a diagram showing the supply of and demand for currency, explain how a floating exchange rate may help to correct a trade surplus. (9 marks)
(June 2018) Question 4 Extract B (lines 19–21) states ‘Although some argue that a current account deficit is not a problem, others point to the worryingly large and persistent nature of the deficit.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, assess the impact of a persistent current account deficit on the macroeconomic performance of the UK economy. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: trade or current account deficit, trade, balance of payments, macroeconomic performance
  • Explaining how a trade or current account deficit may impact upon:
    • Economic growth
    • Unemployment
    • Inflation
    • Other measures of performance
  • Considering the causes of the trade or current account deficit
  • Explaining the difference between trade in goods and services
  • Considering other parts of the current account of the balance of payments, ie primary and secondary income flows, and their significance
  • The role of the capital and financial accounts
  • The significance of having a floating exchange rate
  • Possible government responses to the deficit and their impact on macroeconomic performance
  • The UK’s past experiences with current account deficits
  • The relative importance of the current account deficit in comparison to the other economic goals
  • The “persistent” nature of the deficit
  • The potential costs and benefits of surpluses on the financial account
  • Possible structural problems in the UK economy causing the imbalance.

This question required students to explain the impact of the current account deficit on the macroeconomic performance of the UK. Many students automatically treated the current account deficit in isolation which of course, was credited. As a result, some said that the current account deficit was likely to cause recession. However, the students with better evaluation skills often identified that this may slow down growth rather send it negative. Stronger students not only used data from the extract but also their wider knowledge of trade and also considered solutions to it. Some students at the higher end also considered the capital and financial accounts as well as primary and secondary incomes and their effects on performance. Too many students tried to bring in issues such as “Brexit” despite it being somewhat inappropriate in this question.

(June 2018) Question 4 Extract B (lines 19–21) states ‘Although some argue that a current account deficit is not a problem, others point to the worryingly large and persistent nature of the deficit.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, assess the impact of a persistent current account deficit on the macroeconomic performance of the UK economy. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 2
  • Question 5 - Using the data in Extract D (Figure 4), calculate the average amount saved per household in 2016 if average household income was £26 300. Give your answer to the nearest pound. (2 marks)
  • Question 6 - Explain how the data in Extract D (Figures 3 and 4) show that consumer confidence may have risen since 2014. (4 marks)
  • Question 7 - Extract E (lines 16-17) states ‘However, some argue that trying to maintain stable prices and low unemployment could create trade-offs.’ With the help of a diagram, explain why a trade-off between price stability and low unemployment might occur. (9 marks)
  • Question 8 - Extract F (lines 10–12) states ‘The Austrian economist, Friedrich Hayek, highlighted artificially low interest rates and excessive credit creation as being the main causes of cyclical instability.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that maintaining low interest rates for a sustained period of time may be damaging to the UK’s macroeconomic stability. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 2
(June 2018) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 4), calculate the average amount saved per household in 2016 if average household income was £26 300. Give your answer to the nearest pound. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For a correct answer (£1867) with the £ sign.
  • For a correct answer but without the £ sign and/or not to the nearest £ (eg £1867.30).

The calculation question appeared to be quite straightforward. Students were given a figure for the average UK household income and were shown a table of values for the savings ratio. Students then had to identify the correct year and use the percentage to work out the average amount saved. Most students did this fairly well, however the individual question then asked them to round the data to the nearest whole number. It was at this point that many students surprisingly struggled and lost marks. It is worthwhile training students to look out for how the data should be presented.

(June 2018) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 4), calculate the average amount saved per household in 2016 if average household income was £26 300. Give your answer to the nearest pound. (2 marks)
(June 2018) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figures 3 and 4) show that consumer confidence may have risen since 2014. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that consumer confidence may have risen since 2014
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that consumer confidence may have risen since 2014.

Relevant issues include:

  • Explanation of relevant terms such as saving ratio and consumer confidence
  • Explaining why the saving ratio may indicate consumer confidence
  • Explaining why the gross debt to income ratio is an indicator of consumer confidence
  • The household gross debt to income ratio rose in 2014 to 141%, the first rise since 2011 indicating households were more willing to take on debt
  • Confidence may have been low before 2014, as household gross debt to income was falling from a high of about 168% in 2008 to a low of 140% in 2013 indicating households were reducing indebtedness
  • Forecast data for the household gross debt to income ratio indicate this will continue to rise until 2020 (to 162%) indicating households are expected to borrow more in the future
  • The savings ratio fell in 2014 by 0.9 percentage points from 2012, but had a larger fall after 2014 by 1.3 percentage points in 2016 indicating a small rise in the marginal propensity to consume
  • The lowest saving ratio was in 2016 at 7.1% indicating a peak in consumer confidence and willingness to consume
  • Confidence may have been low before 2014 as the savings ratio peaked in 2010 at 11.2% indicating household pessimism and a reluctance to spend

This question required students to identify what evidence was there to show that consumer confidence had been on the rise since 2014. The students were also directed to both figures in the extract. Despite having this steer, some students only used one extract which hampered their marks. Firstly, the amount of personal debt to income had risen, indicating more loans/credit were being taken out in comparison to their incomes. Secondly, the savings ratio had fallen, indicating that consumer spending as a proportion was rising. Again, in a similar way to question 2, many students used the data but were unable to say “why” this related to confidence.

(June 2018) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figures 3 and 4) show that consumer confidence may have risen since 2014. (4 marks)
(June 2018) Question 7 Extract E (lines 16-17) states ‘However, some argue that trying to maintain stable prices and low unemployment could create trade-offs.’ With the help of a diagram, explain why a trade-off between price stability and low unemployment might occur. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • A short-run Phillips curve diagram is expected with co-ordinates plotted. An AD/AS diagram with an upward sloping AS curve and showing a shift in AD is also acceptable.

Relevant issues include:

  • Definitions/explanations: unemployment, price stability, inflation, trade-off
  • Explaining how lower unemployment leads to higher disposable incomes
  • Describing the possible effects on consumption and demand-pull inflation
  • Describing how a smaller pool of labour may cause labour shortages leading to increased wage demands and cost-push effects
  • Describing the wage-price spiral.

Here, the students were required to explain the potential trade-off between price stability and unemployment. Many students accurately tried to relate this to the context by applying their answer to the MPC and interest rates. Better students explained that in order to reduce unemployment, Bank Rate may be reduced and the resulting effects on consumption and investment boosting AD and causing demand-pull inflation. Better students also explained the effects of lower unemployment on the labour pool and subsequent bargaining power and wage demands. Some students relied too much on just using a diagram and explaining the diagram. Some weaker students did also not properly label diagrams (AD/AS or Phillips curve) and failed to show co-ordinates or movement in diagrams.

(June 2018) Question 7 Extract E (lines 16-17) states ‘However, some argue that trying to maintain stable prices and low unemployment could create trade-offs.’ With the help of a diagram, explain why a trade-off between price stability and low unemployment might occur. (9 marks)
(June 2018) Question 8 Extract F (lines 10–12) states ‘The Austrian economist, Friedrich Hayek, highlighted artificially low interest rates and excessive credit creation as being the main causes of cyclical instability.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that maintaining low interest rates for a sustained period of time may be damaging to the UK’s macroeconomic stability. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: interest rates, monetary policy, economic stability, cyclical instability, credit creation
  • Explaining the possible effects of low interest rates on:
    • Saving and borrowing, including loans and mortgages
    • Consumption
    • Investment
    • The exchange rate
    • Confidence
  • Explaining the benefits of low interest rates for:
    • growth (long-run and short-run)
    • Unemployment
    • Inflation or avoidance of deflation
    • The current account of the balance of payments
  • Explaining the drawbacks of persistently low interest rates such as:
    • Inflationary pressure and overheating the economy
    • Asset-price and speculative bubbles
    • Over-complacency in firms and the build-up of private-sector debt
    • Effects on financial institutions and the real economy if people/firms default on their debt repayments
    • Effects on the housing market if interest rates need to rise
    • Effects on people relying on savings such as pensioners
    • Possibly leading to malinvestment and sustaining zombie businesses
  • Considering why interest rates were low in the first place
  • Explaining the role of the MPC in setting Bank Rate and the factors taken into consideration when setting the rate
  • Explaining the monetary policy transmission mechanism
  • Explanation of alternative schools of thought regarding monetary policy
  • The role of other aspects of monetary policy (eg forward-guidance or Q.E.) alongside conventional interest rate policy
  • The potential short-term benefits of lower interest rates such as household consumption rising compared to long-term financial burden
  • The role of the financial authorities in reducing the possibility of households taking on too much debt.

Here students were asked to consider macro-economic stability and the possible impact that persistently low interest rates may have on stability. Stronger students were able to explain reasons for the historic low Bank Rate, and brought in wider knowledge of forward guidance and reasons to why interest rates may have changed due to the EU referendum. Sadly, many students did not fully relate their answer to stability or they didn’t fully take on board the context. Some students did not fully consider the impact of asset price bubbles or the fact that personal debt has been rising. Stronger answers brought in the role of financial regulators in reducing risk and the fact that (hopefully) the rising debt could easily be managed.

(June 2018) Question 8 Extract F (lines 10–12) states ‘The Austrian economist, Friedrich Hayek, highlighted artificially low interest rates and excessive credit creation as being the main causes of cyclical instability.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that maintaining low interest rates for a sustained period of time may be damaging to the UK’s macroeconomic stability. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 1
  • Question 9 - Explain the main barriers that LEDCs face when attempting to achieve stable, long-term economic growth. (15 marks)
  • Question 10 - Evaluate the view that MNCs play a positive role in the development of LEDCs. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 1
(June 2018) Question 9 Explain the main barriers that LEDCs face when attempting to achieve stable, long-term economic growth. (15 marks)

An African Development Bank report showed that Angola received more direct foreign investment than any other African country in 2015. Angola is a less economically developed country (LEDC) that has had fluctuating economic growth in the past. Despite having suffered from a long civil war which ended in 2002, many multinational corporations (MNCs) are now investing heavily in Angola’s growing economy.

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: economic growth, stable growth, LEDCs
  • Explaining the main characteristics of LEDCs with reference to measurements such as the HDI or GDP
  • Explaining factors that may be barriers to growth such as:
    • Corruption
    • Lack of property rights (both physical and intellectual)
    • Poor infrastructure
    • A lack of, or poor quality, human capital
    • A lack of, or poor quality, physical capital
    • A lack of savings causing a lack of capital accumulation
    • Institutional factors
    • Primary product dependency
    • Informal employment and a lack of tax revenue.

Note:

  • Some candidates may answer this question in terms of why MEDCs find it easier to achieve economic growth. This approach is fine and should be rewarded accordingly.

Generally, this question was answered reasonably well and very few weak answers were seen. Many students were able to describe reasons why LEDC’s find it difficult to achieve long term economic growth. Students found this question much more difficult to work in diagrams and this was considered in the marking. It is important to highlight that diagrams are not a pre-requisite of this question, but they aid application and analysis and where appropriate, should be used. The general focus of the answers was around primary product production, corruption and lack of human and physical capital, however some students failed to relate issues to the long-term and focused answers purely on things such as consumption or lack of exports.

(June 2018) Question 9 Explain the main barriers that LEDCs face when attempting to achieve stable, long-term economic growth. (15 marks)
(June 2018) Question 10 Evaluate the view that MNCs play a positive role in the development of LEDCs. (25 marks)

An African Development Bank report showed that Angola received more direct foreign investment than any other African country in 2015. Angola is a less economically developed country (LEDC) that has had fluctuating economic growth in the past. Despite having suffered from a long civil war which ended in 2002, many multinational corporations (MNCs) are now investing heavily in Angola’s growing economy.

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: economic development, MNCs, LEDCs
  • Positive roles of MNCs in developing nations such as the effects on:
    • Employment and job creation
    • Economic growth (short-run and long-run)
    • The trade balance (eg increase exports)
    • Productivity and international competitiveness
    • Infrastructure
    • Investment and positive multiplier effects
    • Development of human capital
    • Knowledge and technological transfer
    • Standards of living
  • Potential negative roles of MNCs in developing nations such as the effects on:
    • The environment
    • The exploitation of workers
    • The destruction of culture
    • The indigenous industries being unable to compete
    • The unfair political influence which MNCs may possess
    • Possible tax avoidance
    • The repatriation of profits which is negative on GNP
  • Explaining the main differences between LEDCs and MEDCs
  • Examples of MNCs and countries in which they have set up
  • The issue that job creation may be limited due to the capital-intensive nature of the FDI and filling management roles from the source nation
  • That the role depends upon the objectives of the MNC and that initial positive effects may change over time
  • What may happen if the MNC had not been involved in the economy. Would domestic firms have fared better?
  • The individual government’s ability to control the power of the MNCs may determine whether, on balance, they have a positive impact on development.

Again, some very good answers appeared for this question. Many students highlighted the benefits of MNC’s in terms of growth, employment, development and influence on trade. Many students also highlighted real world examples of the successes, and indeed failures of many MNC’s in specific countries. Some students failed to develop their answers sufficiently using economics and some developed political or cultural arguments that drifted off from the actual analysis required. It was encouraging that students could bring in many examples to this question though.

(June 2018) Question 10 Evaluate the view that MNCs play a positive role in the development of LEDCs. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 2
  • Question 11 - Explain how fiscal policy can be used to try to improve the supply side of an economy. (15 marks)
  • Question 12 - Evaluate whether achieving a budget surplus is a desirable objective of economic policy. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 2
(June 2018) Question 11 Explain how fiscal policy can be used to try to improve the supply side of an economy. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions: fiscal policy, government spending, taxation, supply-side policy
  • Explaining how government spending can help the supply-side through:
    • The provision of education and training
    • The provision of infrastructure
    • Grants and subsidies for R+D and investment
    • Increased spending on transportation to increase geographical mobility
    • Industrial and regional policy
    • Reduction of out-of-work welfare benefits to reduce the replacement ratio and increase labour supplli>
    • The use of in-work welfare benefits
  • Explaining how taxation can help the supply side through:
    • Reducing corporation tax to encourage enterprise and FDI
    • Reducing business rates to encourage investment
    • Reducing income tax to encourage labour participation
    • Altering income tax rates and thresholds to encourage labour participation
    • Using reduced taxation, such as business rates, as part of regional policy.
  • Explaining how supply-side policies improve the quantity and quality of the factors of production
  • Explaining how supply-side policies can target both labour and product markets
  • Explaining how supply-side policies can be interventionist or market based

This question required students to explain how fiscal policy can be used to develop the supply-side of the economy. Many answers focused on government provision of infrastructure or use of the tax and benefits system to encourage labour into work. Some answers provided logical chains of analysis to explain how either the quantity or quality of the factors of production could be improved. Some students missed the point about fiscal policy and discussed legislation or just considered subsidies and production rather than give a focus to possible real-life issues. Stronger students highlighted actual issues such as the introduction of T-levels to skills and education.

(June 2018) Question 11 Explain how fiscal policy can be used to try to improve the supply side of an economy. (15 marks)
(June 2018) Question 12 Evaluate whether achieving a budget surplus is a desirable objective of economic policy. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: budget surplus/deficit, budget, fiscal policy
  • Explaining arguments in favour of a budget surplus such as:
    • Reduction of national debt
    • Reducing the burden on future generations
    • The possible improvements to government credit ratings and the effect on coupon rates and debt interest
    • The reduction of crowding out
    • The possible reduction in inflation
  • Explaining arguments against a budget surplus such as:
    • The possible effects of reduced government spending on merit and public goods
    • The possible effects of reduced spending on the supply side of the economy
    • The possible effects of increased taxation on consumption, and investment
    • The possible effects of increased taxation on international trade
    • The possible effects of a negative multiplier effect
  • Explaining the possible causes of the UK budget deficit
  • Explaining the reasons for government spending and types of spending (current, capital, transfer payments)
  • The possibility that a budget surplus may be achieved automatically with economic growth rather than discretionary changes
  • The debt to GDP ratio may be falling if the economy is growing even if the economy is still running a deficit
  • The causes of the deficit may be vital in understanding whether a surplus is desirable, for example, is the deficit a cyclical or structural deficit?
  • The state of the economy and position on the economic cycle determines whether a surplus is likely or achievable
  • The view that balancing or achieving a small surplus on the current budget is desirable but borrowing to invest isn’t a problem
  • The issue that borrowing may be beneficial and cheap when coupon rates are low.

Students gave quite a mixed response to this question. Sadly, many gave circular arguments and stated that the main aim was to create a surplus so that it would enable the government to spend more. Stronger students highlighted repayments on the deficit, crowding out, possible inflationary effects and the possible effects on bond yields with the very strongest able to evaluate this against real-life events. Many students only considered “austerity” as an alternative and failed to consider tax rises or the difference between structural and cyclical deficits. Many answers confused a budget surplus with a balance of payments surplus. This led to no marks being awarded.

(June 2018) Question 12 Evaluate whether achieving a budget surplus is a desirable objective of economic policy. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 3
  • Question 13 - Explain the causes of cyclical and structural unemployment. (15 marks)
  • Question 14 - Assess the view that falling unemployment will inevitably lead to an improvement in the standard of living for people in the UK. (25 marks)
(June 2018) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 3
(June 2018) Question 13 Explain the causes of cyclical and structural unemployment. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: unemployment, cyclical unemployment, structural unemployment
  • In terms of cyclical unemployment, explaining:
    • That cyclical unemployment is often seen as involuntary
    • That cyclical unemployment is linked to demand deficiency
    • Possible causes of a fall in aggregate demand
    • The derived demand for labour and linking cyclical unemployment to national output
    • Interdependence of economies and global downturns
    • Reduction in confidence and animal spirits
    • Problems in financial markets affecting the real economy
    • Causes of negative output gaps or causes of falling output and linking this to the demand for labour
    • Recessions and possible negative multiplier and accelerator effects on cyclical unemployment
  • In terms of structural unemployment, explaining:
    • Structural unemployment may come about by the decline of an industry due to changes in the pattern of demand
    • Structural unemployment is often seen as voluntary
    • Structural unemployment as essentially a supply-side problem
    • Technological unemployment
    • Examples in the UK where structural unemployment has occurred
    • Skills mis-matches and the need for geographical and occupational mobility
    • Globalisation and the rise of emerging economies
    • Potential regional issues and the effects on particular industries.

This essay was clearly the most popular of all essays. Many students were able to identify relevant causes of cyclical unemployment and relate this to involuntary unemployment, falling outputs and a falling derived demand for labour. Suitable diagrams were also used. Further to this, many students developed issues around structural unemployment quite well and linked skills, occupational immobility, and geographical immobility to the problem. They were also able to give historic contexts (coal) and more recent experiences (steel) and relate them to the question with relevant examples. Some students however, failed to differentiate between the two with a minority getting the answers the wrong way around.

(June 2018) Question 13 Explain the causes of cyclical and structural unemployment. (15 marks)
(June 2018) Question 14 Assess the view that falling unemployment will inevitably lead to an improvement in the standard of living for people in the UK. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: unemployment, standard of living, quality of life
  • Explaining why falling unemployment may improve living standards through:
    • Increased incomes and consumption possibilities
    • Allowing individuals to have more disposable income to spend on leisure
    • Motivational and possible health effects
    • Social interaction
    • Increased tax revenue allowing government to continue spending without accumulating debt
  • Explaining how falling unemployment may not improve living standards such as:
    • Possible inflationary effects which may do little to help those on fixed incomes or low bargaining power
    • Inequality may get worse particularly for those not in work
    • Cost of living increases
    • Reduced unemployment may indicate increased output which may indicate more pollution
  • Explaining other measures of the standard of living such as the HDIExplaining quality of life factors
  • The issue that the type of work and bargaining power of the workers may determine the relative winners and losers from falling unemployment
  • Productivity and implications for growth and wages
  • The possible effects on firm’s costs of a tight labour market and the potential of cost-push inflationary pressure
  • The nature and security of the jobs that have been created by considering the effects of zero-hours contracts on issues such as the ability to access credit, job security and incomes
  • Issues around the ‘gig economy’, underemployment and the lack of permanent or constant employment and income.

Students appeared well-rehearsed and confident in considering the employment statistics against actual living standards. Many drew on the prompts in the extracts and highlighted companies which possibly gave less favourable working conditions than others. Several also considered the inflationary effects of high employment and considered the effects on real wages. Some students also considered the wider implications on the government; however, this is where some drift from “living standards” was observed, with many considering living standards in monetary terms only. Stronger students consider the quality of life of not only those in employment but also others in society whereas weaker students only considered the cost of living.

(June 2018) Question 14 Assess the view that falling unemployment will inevitably lead to an improvement in the standard of living for people in the UK. (25 marks)
Summary of June 2018 Paper 2 National and international economy

This was the second sitting of the AQA Economics 7136/2 paper and it was clear to see that many centres had learned lessons from the previous series.It is encouraging that centres not only used papers from the first series but also use the guidance written in these examiners reports in order to help their students gain the best advantage possible. Many centres are also teaching skills rather than just the basic content and the students that have the skills of adaptability and resilience are the ones which are performing the best. Some students are still relying on pre-rehearsed “AS” answers but it is good to see that these are generally in the minority, whereas the majority are able to quote current statistics and real world events and apply these in context. It is also advisable to teach students about the Assessment Objectives (AO’s) and to give them a greater understanding of how these are distributed on each question.This year saw an increase in the number of students taking the AQA paper which demonstrates not only the growth in AQA’s market but also the growth in student’s interest in economics in general. This may be due to the prominence of economics in the media. Many students used their knowledge of recent events in America, Europe and the UK (including the EU referendum) however it is important that students use their own knowledge where appropriate and not try to work things in to answer where it is not suitable.Finally, it is also important to draw to centres attention the timings and dates of exams in the 2018/19 series. Some centres may find there is marginally less teaching time in comparison to this series and centres need to take this into account when planning.

Summary of June 2018 Paper 2 National and international economy
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 1
  • Question 1 - Using the data in Extract A, calculate the GDP per capita for Costa Rica in 2015/2016 to the nearest dollar. (2 marks)
  • Question 2 - Explain how the data in Extract A indicate living standards may be higher in the UK than in the USA. (4 marks)
  • Question 3 - Extract B (lines 8–9) states ‘If injections into an economy’s circular flow of income increase, then this may generate multiple increases in GDP.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how an increase in injections may generate multiple increases in an economy’s GDP. (9 marks)
  • Question 4 - Extract B (lines 13–15) states ‘If real GDP goes up, the economy is doing well; this is associated with higher incomes, more jobs and higher spending.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, assess the view that to improve the living standards of their citizens, governments across the world should prioritise achieving economic growth. (25 marks)

This context was slightly more popular than context 2, however the difference was marginal. The context was about the measurement of GDP and its usefulness in analysing living standards. It centred around three countries: the UK; USA and Costa Rica, and looked at various aspects of the HDI and wider quality of life measures. The third extract analysed Costa Rica and the Happy Planet Index and looked at sustainability being a key factor in people’s quality of life.

(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 1
(June 2019) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A, calculate the GDP per capita for Costa Rica in 2015/2016 to the nearest dollar. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For the correct answer ($14,204) with the $ sign.
  • For a correct answer ($14,204) but without the $ sign and/or not to the nearest $. Or For the correct method but the wrong answer, to the nearest $ and with the $ sign.

Note:

  • A correct method would include 69.6bn/4.9m or equivalent but not 69.6/4.9.

The difficulty of this question was in relating the $bn to the population in millions. Students should consider the plausibility of their answer because some were improbable and ranged from $14 to $14 million dollars per capita. It is also useful to note that, for the first time, method marks were included in the mark scheme but many failed to show the correct method.

(June 2019) Question 1 Using the data in Extract A, calculate the GDP per capita for Costa Rica in 2015/2016 to the nearest dollar. (2 marks)
(June 2019) Question 2 Explain how the data in Extract A indicate living standards may be higher in the UK than in the USA. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that living standards in the UK are higher than in the USA
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that living standards are higher in the UK than the USA

Relevant issues include:

  • The meaning of the term ‘living standards’
  • The mean years of schooling is higher in the UK (13.3 years) compared to the USA (13.2 years) indicating the UK may have a more educated population
  • The infant mortality rate is lower in the UK (4.2 per 1000 births) compared to the USA (6.5 per 1000 births) indicating the UK has better healthcare
  • The Gini coefficient is lower in the UK (0.33) compared to the USA (0.41) indicating that there is lower inequality in the UK which could be linked to living standards being higher for some people on lower incomes
  • CO2 emissions are lower in the UK (6.2 tonnes per capita) than the USA (16.1 tonnes per capita) indicating less environmental pollution in the UK.

Here, students were asked to explain which aspects of the data showed that the UK may have better standards of living than the USA. Some attempted to calculate the GDP per capita in both nations, which didn’t show living standards were higher. Also, many were distracted by the rate of increase in the HDI which, again, couldn’t be used. Most did use data such as the infant mortality rate or the CO2 emissions. The best answers successfully explained how these affected living standards.

(June 2019) Question 2 Explain how the data in Extract A indicate living standards may be higher in the UK than in the USA. (4 marks)
(June 2019) Question 3 Extract B (lines 8–9) states ‘If injections into an economy’s circular flow of income increase, then this may generate multiple increases in GDP.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how an increase in injections may generate multiple increases in an economy’s GDP. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • An AD/AS diagram which shows AD shifting rightward on more than one occasion is expected. The first shift showing the initial impact of the injection, and the further shift(s) indicating the subsequent multiplier effect. However, if there is only one shift, accompanied by a written explanation that incorporates the multiplier effect, this is also acceptable.
  • Click to view the Suggested Diagram

Relevant issues include:

  • Definitions/explanations: the multiplier, GDP, the short-run, circular flow of income, injections, marginal propensity to consume
  • Explaining reasons for an increase in the injections into the circular flow: investment, government spending, exports
  • Linking the rise in injections to rising AD
  • The impact of rising AD on employment, disposable income, consumption and investment
  • Explaining the multiplier effect and formula, the marginal propensity to consume and their impact on the size of the increase in AD
  • Explaining the effect of the propensities to withdraw on the size of the multiplier, ie the MPS, MPT and MPM
  • Explaining the effects of increased investment and government spending on AS and output
  • Explaining the overall impact on GDP.

Question 3 required students to explain how initial injections into the circular flow of income, could create multiple increases in GDP. The expected answers centred upon the multiplier effect and possible accelerator effects. Prompts were also given in the question about the marginal propensity to consume and it was expected that some would use the multiplier formula, however only a few did. Some responses discussed increases on the supply side which was fine. It was clear that some students didn’t fully understand the injections into the circular flow, or how initial injections lead to second round effects.

(June 2019) Question 3 Extract B (lines 8–9) states ‘If injections into an economy’s circular flow of income increase, then this may generate multiple increases in GDP.’ With the help of a diagram, explain how an increase in injections may generate multiple increases in an economy’s GDP. (9 marks)
(June 2019) Question 4 Extract B (lines 13–15) states ‘If real GDP goes up, the economy is doing well; this is associated with higher incomes, more jobs and higher spending’. Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, assess the view that to improve the living standards of their citizens, governments across the world should prioritise achieving economic growth. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: long-run economic growth, short-run economic growth, living standards
  • Explaining the links between a higher GDP or real GDP/capita and living standards
  • Explaining why economic growth may lead to improved living standards through:
    • Increased employment and disposable incomes
    • More consumption possibilities
    • Improved public services and merit good provision
    • A reduction in absolute poverty
  • Explaining why economic growth may lead to worsening living standards through:
    • Inflation and its effects on individuals such as those on fixed incomes or those with low wage-bargaining power
    • The negative externalities of production such as pollution or deforestation
    • The using up of scarce resources
    • Inequality
    • Stress/loss of leisure time
  • Explaining the methods by which the government could stimulate short-run economic growth through:
    • Expansionary fiscal policies such as decreasing income tax rates or increased government spending
    • Expansionary monetary policies such as decreasing interest rates or increasing the money supply (although this may not directly be controlled by the government)
  • Explaining the methods by which the government could stimulate long-run economic growth through:
    • Interventionist supply-side policies such as increased provision of education and training
    • Market based supply-side policies such as lowering corporation tax
  • The difference between achieving short-run and long-run economic growth
  • Considering what “happiness” means and whether material well-being correlates with happiness
  • Considering that it may depend upon the country in question, for example many LEDCs may require economic growth at a faster rate than many developed economies
  • Considering the objective of economic growth in comparison to the other objectives
  • Considering whether long-run economic growth can be achieved and the subsequent
  • improvement in living standards
  • Considering the effects and/or trade-offs of economic growth depend where the economy is in the economic cycle.

This question required students to explain whether governments around the world should prioritise achieving economic growth, in order to raise the living standards of their citizens. There were a wide range of responses to the question. The best answers made use of the data in the context and weighed up the costs and benefits of both short-run and long-run economic growth relating these to the effects on standards of living. Some responses focused on the prioritisation of economic growth compared to the other macroeconomic goals. Others considered the role of stages of development in the answer and brought in wider knowledge from their own personal studies. Less successful responses did not successfully link the question to living standards and focused on a narrow understanding of incomes.

(June 2019) Question 4 Extract B (lines 13–15) states ‘If real GDP goes up, the economy is doing well; this is associated with higher incomes, more jobs and higher spending’. Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, assess the view that to improve the living standards of their citizens, governments across the world should prioritise achieving economic growth. (25 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 2
  • Question 5 - Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate, to the nearest pound, the amount of income tax payable for someone in Scotland earning £13 500. (2 marks)
  • Question 6 - Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 2) show that the UK’s public finances have been improving since 2010. (4 marks)
  • Question 7 - Extract E (lines 11–12) states ‘If growth could be increased, the budget deficit would fall much faster.’ With the help of a diagram, explain why a higher rate of economic growth is likely to reduce the budget deficit. (9 marks)
  • Question 8 - Extract F (line 1) states ‘In most of the UK, reducing the budget deficit has focused on austerity rather than tax rises.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that there is a strong case for significant increases in UK income tax rates. (25 marks)

This context focused on Scotland’s decision to use its devolved powers to set its own income tax rates. The data gave rates for both the rest of the UK and Scotland and the extracts looked at the UK’s public finances and Scotland’s proposed plans for their additional revenue.

(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Context 2
(June 2019) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate, to the nearest pound, the amount of income tax payable for someone in Scotland earning £13 500. (2 marks)

What a response must include:

  • For a correct answer £314 (with the £ sign) (allow £313).
  • For a correct answer but without the £ sign and/or not to the nearest £. Or For the correct method but the wrong answer, to the nearest £ and with the £ sign.

This question asked students to calculate income tax payable for someone on a set income. Firstly, students were required to calculate the tax-free amount, then calculate a proportion of the remainder to work out the tax payable. As the income tax bands can be quite confusing, two possible answers were given in the mark scheme, £313 and £314. Again, a method mark was included in the mark scheme. Some students could not calculate the tax-free portion of the calculation and, as a result, failed to get the correct answer or method mark. The majority of students did pick up 2 marks for this question; however a number scored no marks.

(June 2019) Question 5 Using the data in Extract D (Figure 3), calculate, to the nearest pound, the amount of income tax payable for someone in Scotland earning £13 500. (2 marks)
(June 2019) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 2) show that the UK’s public finances have been improving since 2010. (4 marks)

What a response must include:

  • Includes evidence that shows that the UK’s public finances have been improving since 2010
  • Clearly explains how this data is evidence that the UK’s public finances have been improving since 2010

Relevant issues include:

  • The meaning of ‘improved public finances’
  • The deficit has fallen from the start (£140bn) to the end (£20bn)
  • Tax receipts have increased from start (£550bn in 2009/10) to finish (£830bn in 2020/11)
  • Tax receipts have increased each and every year, the smallest increase being between 2011/12 (£600bn) and 2012/13 (£610bn)
  • Government spending didn’t increase in every year (although it almost did) – in 2010/11 and 2011/12 it remained at (£720bn) however tax revenue increased over this time
  • The rate of increase of tax receipts is greater than that of government spending. Tax receipts increased from £550bn to £830bn over the period (an increase of 50.9%) compared to government spending which went from £690bn to £850bn (an increase of 23.2%)
  • Considering that the deficit has fallen in real terms or as a proportion of GDP.

This question required students to identify what evidence there was that public finances had improved since 2010. As two data points related to 2010 (2009/10 and 2010/11), answers which referred to either were accepted. The main issues which were expected were discussion of the falling deficit and discussion of rising tax revenue in comparison to government expenditure, which was rising at a slower rate. Most were able to do this successfully but some confused what government expenditure was actually measuring, which hindered responses.

(June 2019) Question 6 Explain how the data in Extract D (Figure 2) show that the UK’s public finances have been improving since 2010. (4 marks)
(June 2019) Question 7 Extract E (lines 11–12) states ‘If growth could be increased, the budget deficit would fall much faster.’ With the help of a diagram, explain why a higher rate of economic growth is likely to reduce the budget deficit. (9 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • An AD/AS diagram which shows AD shifting rightward may be used. An economic cycle diagram showing the economy gaining a higher GDP is also acceptable.
  • Some of the best students may include a diagram that has GDP on the horizontal axis and taxation plus government spending on the vertical axis. The diagram will show tax revenue increasing with GDP and probably, government spending falling as GDP rises. The diagram reflects how the cyclical deficit changes as GDP changes.
  • Click to view Suggested Diagram 1
  • Click to view Suggested Diagram 2
  • Click to view Suggested Diagram 3

Relevant issues include:

  • Definitions/explanations: economic growth, budget, budget deficit
  • Explaining reasons for rising AD such as any cause of a rise in C+I+G+(x-m)
  • Linking the rise in AD to increased output, an increased derived demand for labour and falling cyclical unemployment
  • Linking falling unemployment to a reduction in government spending on benefits (eg JSA)
  • Linking rising GDP and falling unemployment to a rise in tax receipts (ie income tax)
  • Linking rising GDP to increased spending and consumption causing VAT receipts to rise
  • Linking rising GDP to increased spending and company profits causing corporation tax receipts to rise.

In this question, students were asked to link economic growth to a falling budget deficit. Most successfully explained the budget deficit and linked economic growth to falling unemployment. From here they described rising income tax revenue, rising VAT or corporation tax from rising profits or falling expenditure from reduced welfare benefits. Some did not explain which taxes were rising and why, or exactly why welfare benefit spending was falling. Equally some were unable to link their diagram to the answer which was a weakness.

(June 2019) Question 7 Extract E (lines 11–12) states ‘If growth could be increased, the budget deficit would fall much faster.’ With the help of a diagram, explain why a higher rate of economic growth is likely to reduce the budget deficit. (9 marks)
(June 2019) Question 8 Extract F (line 1) states ‘In most of the UK, reducing the budget deficit has focused on austerity rather than tax rises.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that there is a strong case for significant increases in UK income tax rates. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: income tax rates, taxation, tax thresholds, fiscal policy, budget deficit
  • Considering the possibility that tax rate increases may cause a rise or fall in tax revenue
  • Explaining the potential positive effects of raising income tax rates and possible rising tax receipts
  • on:
    • Deficit reduction
    • Structural and cyclical deficits
    • The national debt
    • Reducing the crowding-out effect
    • Maintaining/improving credit ratings
    • Debt interest payments
    • Inequality
    • Financing public spending without building up further debt
  • Explaining the potential negative effects of rising income tax rates and possible falling tax revenue due to:
    • Disincentives to work and the effects on the replacement ratio
    • Tax avoidance
    • Tax evasion
    • Other effects such as 'brain-drain'
  • Explaining the principles of taxation
  • Explaining and analysing the Laffer-curve
  • Explaining the difference between supply-side and demand-side effects of raising income tax
  • Explaining the effects of income tax rises on the labour market
  • Explaining the effects of tax rises on consumption
  • Explaining the progressive nature of income tax
  • Explaining the potential difficulties of a 'more-complex' taxation system
  • Considering the increased possibility of fiscal drag
  • Considering the benefits/drawbacks of tax increases compared to government spending cuts
  • Considering which income groups the tax rises may apply to (higher income earners only?)
  • Considering the effects may depend upon the stage in the economic cycle the UK is in
  • Considering whether deficit reduction is desirable or necessary.

Question 8 asked students to discuss whether income tax rises should occur across the whole of the UK. Some discussed whether the whole of the UK should adopt Scotland’s policy of raising taxes on higher income groups and reduce tax rates on lower income groups which was accepted in marking. Many higher scoring answers considered whether increasing tax rates would actually lead to more revenue due to issues such as tax avoidance or evasion. Some considered equity arguments and what increased revenue may be spent on. This, however, lead to some confused answers that did not articulate how a falling deficit may occur or could not link the deficit to national debt.

(June 2019) Question 8 Extract F (line 1) states ‘In most of the UK, reducing the budget deficit has focused on austerity rather than tax rises.’ Using the data in the extracts and your knowledge of economics, evaluate the view that there is a strong case for significant increases in UK income tax rates. (25 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 1
  • Question 9 - Explain why the value of a currency may fall in a floating exchange rate system. (15 marks)
  • Question 10 - Assess the view that a depreciation of the pound against other currencies is likely to improve the UK’s macroeconomic performance. (25 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 1
(June 2019) Question 9 Explain why the value of a currency may fall in a floating exchange rate system. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams, such as a diagram showing the supply of and demand for currencies, to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: exchange rate, floating exchange rate, depreciation, the role of the FOREX market
  • Giving examples of depreciation (such as a numerical example)
  • Explaining that the value of a currency is determined by the demand for and supply of the currency
  • Explaining why a fall in demand for or increase in supply of currency will lead to a fall in the equilibrium exchange rate
  • dentifying and explaining reasons why the demand for currency may fall such as:
    • A fall in exports
    • A fall in inward FDI
    • A fall in tourism
    • A fall in the interest rate causing a reduction in hot money flows into the country
    • Speculation
  • Identifying and explaining reasons why the supply of a currency may increase such as:
    • A rise in imports
    • A rise in FDI going abroad
    • A rise in tourism to another country
    • A fall in interest rates leading to a rise in hot money flows out of a country
    • Speculation
  • Explaining government intervention which may occur if the floating exchange rate is not a “free” float.

Generally, this question was answered reasonably well with good use of diagrams. Most students could link issues such as changes in net trade, the flow of hot money and changes in interest rates. Most could also use the supply and demand of currency on FOREX. It is also important to note the question asked for changes on a floating exchange rate. This could be a free-float or managed- float. Some students considered Brexit without subsequent explanation as to exactly why currency flows may have changed. A minority of students analysed appreciation rather than depreciation.

(June 2019) Question 9 Explain why the value of a currency may fall in a floating exchange rate system. (15 marks)
(June 2019) Question 10 Assess the view that a depreciation of the pound against other currencies is likely to improve the UK’s macroeconomic performance. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: macroeconomic performance, depreciation
  • Explaining the causes of a depreciation in the currency
  • Explaining the impact of depreciation on the price of imports or exports
  • Explaining the impact of a depreciation of the pound on economic growth
    • Such as the effects on AD
    • Such as the potential rise in FDI
  • Explaining the impact of a depreciation of the pound on unemployment
    • Such as a rise in exports and the subsequent increase in the derived demand for labour
  • Explaining the impact of a depreciation of the pound on inflation
    • Such as the impact on demand-pull inflation from rising exports
    • Such as the increased cost of raw materials or other imports
  • Explaining the impact of a depreciation of the pound on the current account of the balance of payments
    • Such as increased international competitiveness and a rise in exports
    • Such as the relative price of foreign goods becoming more expensive and a fall in imports
  • Considering the extent of the fall in currency and its subsequent impacts
  • Consideringwhetherthecurrencyself-correctstosomeextent
  • Considering short-run and long-run implications of depreciation, eg on economic growth
  • Considering the Marshall-Lerner condition, elasticities and the ‘J-curve’ effect
  • Considering whether it has any impact in the long run, eg will the inflationary impact of the depreciation erode its effects?
  • Considering the short-run and long-run impact of a fall in the exchange rate on living standards.

Most answers to this question demonstrated good understanding of the effects of depreciation on net trade. Some looked at other aspects of macroeconomic performance such as the effect on growth or unemployment. More successful answers considered the effects on both imported inflation and potential demand-pull inflation. Some responses considered the elasticities of both imports and exports and the Marshall-Lerner condition. Further to this, diagrammatical analysis using J-curves were also used. Less successful responses could not see past the initial change while better responses also considered self-correction and empirical evidence.

(June 2019) Question 10 Assess the view that a depreciation of the pound against other currencies is likely to improve the UK’s macroeconomic performance. (25 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 2
  • Question 11 Explain how the monetary policy transmission mechanism works when the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) raises Bank Rate. (15 marks)
  • Question 12 Evaluate the view that strict rules and regulations on financial markets are essential to help create a more stable economy. (25 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 2
(June 2019) Question 11 Explain how the monetary policy transmission mechanism works when the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) raises Bank Rate. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams such as AD/AS or the supply of and demand for currency, to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: monetary policy, transmission mechanism, Bank Rate, interest rates
  • The role of the MPC in achieving 2% +/- 1% CPI inflation and supporting the government’s objectives regarding growth and employment
  • Explaining how a rise in Bank Rate may reduce household consumption:
    • Due to a rise in saving
    • Due to credit becoming more expensive
    • Due to variable rate mortgages becoming more expensive
  • Explaining how a rise in Bank Rate may reduce investment:
    • Due to credit becoming more expensive
    • Due to investment appraisal being unfavourable
    • More pessimism
  • Explaining how a rise in Bank rate may appreciate the exchange rate:
    • Due to a rise in demand for the currency and/or a fall in supply of the currency on the FOREX (hot money flows)
  • The impact on asset prices and the consequent wealth effects
  • Explaining how all of the above affect AD.

This question required students to explain how the transmission mechanism filters through to the economy when the MPC alters Bank Rate. Strong responses were able to identify why the MPC may alter Bank Rate and discussed inflation targets. Many also considered the effects on both individuals and firms. Some responses didn’t fully consider the effects on the exchange rate and net trade which limited the answers.

(June 2019) Question 11 Explain how the monetary policy transmission mechanism works when the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) raises Bank Rate. (15 marks)
(June 2019) Question 12 Evaluate the view that strict rules and regulations on financial markets are essential to help create a more stable economy. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: financial markets, macroeconomic stability, financial stability
  • Relating rules and regulations to the FPC, FCA, and PRA and explaining the functions of each of the regulatory bodies
  • Explaining both micro and macro prudential regulation
  • Giving examples, such as explaining the build up to the last major financial crisis in the UK in 2007/08
  • Explaining systemic risk and the impacts on the real economy in terms of:
    • Growth
    • Unemployment
    • Inflation
    • Government finances
  • Explaining liquidity ratios and the ‘stress-testing’ of banks
  • Explaining the role of other economic agents in attempting to create macroeconomic stability
    • Such as the MPC’s role in price stability and helping achieve the government’s objectives for growth and unemployment
    • Such as the OBR’s role in monitoring the impact of government budgetary changes
    • Such as the EU’s rules regarding fiscal stability
    • Such as the Basel accords
  • Considering the possibility of government failure in banking or regulatory capture
  • Considering financial market failure, speculative bubbles and moral hazard
  • Considering that too much regulation may cause ‘banking brain-drain’ and damage the UK’s financial services industry in the long-run
  • Considering the relative success (or failure) of current regulations or improvements that can be made to the system
  • Considering the possibility of market failure in banking such as asymmetric information in financial products
  • Considering that economic stability is much more than just financial stability
  • Considering that some external economic shocks may not be fully insulated against.

Many responses were able to discuss moral hazard, systemic risk and financial regulation and the best answers linked this successfully to macroeconomic stability. Some less successful answers totally confused the question and discussed currency markets or fiscal policy.

(June 2019) Question 12 Evaluate the view that strict rules and regulations on financial markets are essential to help create a more stable economy. (25 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 3
  • Question 13 - Explain the main causes of a rise in inflation. (15 marks)
  • Question 14 - Evaluate the view that inflation is always preferable to deflation. (25 marks)
(June 2019) Paper 2 National and international economy - Essay 3
(June 2019) Question 13 Explain the main causes of a rise in inflation. (15 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis such as rising AD/AS should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the student’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: inflation, cost-push inflation, demand-pull inflation, the general price- level, price indices
  • Explaining possible causes of rises in demand-pull inflation through an increase in the components of AD such as:
    • Increased consumption due to the falling unemployment
    • Increased investment due to falling interest rates
    • Increased government spending due to a discretionary policy to raise welfare spending, eg pensions
    • Increased exports due to higher economic growth in a trade partner
    • Decreased imports and increased exports due to a depreciation in the currency
    • A rise in the money supply supporting the monetarist view and using the Fisher equation
  • Explaining possible causes of rising cost-push inflation through an increase in the costs of the factors of production such as:
    • Rising wage costs
    • Rising raw material costs
    • Rising commodity prices such as oil
  • Explaining external shocks which may impact upon inflation
  • Explain microeconomic issues which may impact upon inflation such as rising housing costs affecting the RPI measure or possible collusion in energy markets affecting domestic fuel prices
  • Explaining possible short-run reasons for increases in prices and long-run reasons.

This essay was clearly the most popular. Many were able to identify relevant causes of inflation and could analyse both demand-pull and cost-push causes. Diagrams were also successfully used although less successful answers focused upon analysing the diagram rather than the causes of inflation. A minority confused the two causes. Some used the Fisher equation and the Monetarist view of inflation which the better responses were able to analyse successfully.

(June 2019) Question 13 Explain the main causes of a rise in inflation. (15 marks)
(June 2019) Question 14 Evaluate the view that inflation is always preferable to deflation. (25 marks)

Suggested Diagram:

  • The use of relevant diagrams to support the analysis should be taken into account when assessing the quality of the candidate’s response to the question.

Areas for discussion include:

  • Definitions/explanations: inflation, deflation
  • Explaining the different types of inflation (demand-pull and cost-push)
  • Explaining the different types of deflation (malign and benign)
  • Explaining the UK’s recent history of inflation and deflation
  • Explaining the causes of inflation and deflation
  • Explaining the effects of inflation or deflation upon:
    • Individuals, such as inflation causing a higher cost of living
    • Borrowers, such as the relative value of debt falling with inflation
    • Savers, such as inflation eroding the value of savings
    • Those on fixed incomes such as the current government policy of raising JSA at 1% or inflation (whichever is lowest)
    • Real interest rates and borrowing
    • Firms and investment
    • Labour markets, such as individuals with low bargaining power being unable to negotiate higher wages
    • Consumption decisions, such as delayed consumption due to deflation
    • International competitiveness
    • Activity and stability
  • Considering the different types of inflation in terms of creeping or hyper-inflation
  • Considering that inflation may benefit one group but at the expense of another
  • Considering that the type of deflation may determine the effects
  • Considering the duration of the inflation or deflation
  • Considering the ability of the MPC to return to the target of 2% inflation, eg the problem of the lower bound to interest rates (liquidity trap).

The majority answered this question, and many appeared well-versed in the differences between malign or benign deflation and the different effects on the economy. A few answers drifted at this point and discussed other things that are happening at the same time, rather than the effects of inflation or deflation. Some failed to fully understand the impacts of both and were unable to give a fully developed response. A minority also created circular arguments saying that deflation led to inflation and vice versa.

(June 2019) Question 14 Evaluate the view that inflation is always preferable to deflation. (25 marks)
Summary of June 2019 Paper 2 National and international economy

Summary of June 2019 Paper 2 National and international economy
Overview of AQA English Language Papers 1 and 2.

Paper 1

  • Section A - 20-30 minutes reading/preparing texts. Look for interesting features; not grammar. Look for an important thing in the text that explains a lot about meaning and representations; zero in on that sentence and then identify the grammar (start with a sentence type and then look for the clause, e.g. fronted subordinate clause and then the phrase, e.g. noun phrase, verb phrase and then look at the word, e.g. adjective, pre-modifying, post-modifying).
    • Questions 1 and 2 - AO1 10 marks (language levels) A03 15 marks (representations)
      • AO1 10 marks (language levels): Whole range of language levels (include clauses and phrases for A* but don't ignore simpler levels like conjunctions - but say what sentence it is within). Don't write "This adjective." instead write "This adjective in this phrase in this clause in this type of sentence." to get full 10 AO1 marks.
      • AO3 15 marks (representations): Signpost everything; don't just pick a representation and talk about it, write "This represents..." to show AO3. Alternatively use "portrays" or "exhibits".
      • Feedback from AQA on Questions 1 and 2: You must link all AO1 points to representations. Ignore graphology (not relevant to language).
    • Question 3 - 20 minutes AO4 20 marks. Find differences and acknowledge similarities. Comparison question. Don't repeat what was said in Qs 1 and 2 - talk about differences in context, types of grammar used. Aim for at least one similarity and one difference.
  • Section B - 40 minutes on Child Language Acquisition (CLA). Revise theory in a similar way to that of Paper 2; mindmaps/tables. Also flashcards/questions for key terminology. Revise both spoken and written equally.

Paper 2

Overview of AQA English Language Papers 1 and 2.
More notes on Q3, CLA and more language levels.
  • Examples include conditional clauses, fronted subordinate clauses
  • One clause/sentence analysis can increase level by 1. At level 5 all language levels must be used (grammar, lexis, semantics).
  • For question 3 (Paper 1), the comparison, time, date and place are both significant, e.g. regional or national newspaper. ~3 paragraphs for question 1 and 2, ~2 paragraphs for question 3. Ensure GAP is used (Genre, Audience, Purpose), also mode, time and place.
  • Ideas of structure for comparing Text A and Text B
    • Paragraph 1 - An overview of both texts to include GAP and tone.
    • Paragraph 2 - Context of both texts; how are they of their era in terms of subject matter, attitude and approach. Key language change areas: lexical differences, semantic differences, grammar and syntax differences, orthographical differences.
    • Paragraph 3 - Register and tone if possible.
    • Paragraph 4 - Structure including graphology, if relevant.
  • What is meant by advanced grammar and language levels
    • Examples include relative clauses, active and passive voice, adjectives, adverbs, verbs (modal and auxiliary), pronouns, nouns, phrases, participles, clauses and sentence types, conjunctions, complex/compound or minor sentences.
    • Level 4 needs (B grade, top C grade)
    • Level 5 needs (grade A/A*): Active or passive voice, clause order, clause linking, types of conjunctions, position of the subordinate clause, relative clauses, conditional clauses, parallel clauses, antithesis, discourse structure and visual design structure and webpage navigation, patterns of metaphors, types of modality (epistemic or deontic), anaphoric/cataphoric reference and pragmatics.
  • Past Papers
    • Good things to do
      • Effective structure, confidently written (if you pretend you know what you're talking about, then it sounds like you do), consistent use of terminology, linking arguments to a range of theories.
    • Suggestions for further development
      • Clearer written English, more organised structure to answers with signposting, better use of linguistic terminology, wider range of theory, more arguments, more evaluation and interpretation of theory, more focus on the question, a clearer argument, more evaluation than challenge of views, more precise and accurate linguistic analysis, more grammar details, wider range of language methods.
More notes on Q3, CLA and more language levels.
A* Student’s notes and exam answers.

Click here to view the Google Drive

A* Student’s notes and exam answers.
Dynamic vs Stative Verb

Dynamic verbs (sometimes referred to as "action verbs") usually describe actions we can take, or things that happen whereas stative verbs usually refer to a state or condition which is not changing or likely to change.

Dynamic vs Stative Verb
What is an anaphoric reference?

Anaphoric reference occurs when a word or phrase refers to something mentioned earlier in the discourse.

What is an anaphoric reference?
What is an example of anaphoric referencing?

Michael went to the bank. He was annoyed because it was closed.

What is an example of anaphoric referencing?
What is a cataphoric reference?

Cataphoric reference occurs where a word or phrase refers to something mentioned later in the discourse.

What is a cataphoric reference?
What is a example of cataphoric referencing?

Although I phone her every week, my mother still complains that I don’t keep in touch often enough.

What is a example of cataphoric referencing?
What is a exophoric reference?

Exophoric reference occurs when a word or phrase refers to something outside the discourse.

What is a exophoric reference?
What is a example of exophoric referencing?

They’re late again, can you believe it?

What is a example of exophoric referencing?
What is the IPA?

The IPA represents a series of phonemes.

What is the IPA?
Define mode.

Mode or modality is the medium of communication, for example speech or writing.

Define mode.
What is non-verbal behaviour.

Eye contact and facial expressions.

What is non-verbal behaviour.
Define paralanguage.

Voice quality and other vocal effects (e.g. whispering or laughter).

Define paralanguage.
What are discourse markers?

Discourse markers are words that signal a shift in conversation and topic areas. It can also announce a counter argument, e.g. ok, right then, so, but.

What are discourse markers?
What are false starts?

These are used when a speaker begins to speak, pauses and then starts again, e.g. it began er Arsenal kicked off the second half.

What are false starts?
What are non-fluency features?

Parts of speech that are not made of actual words, e.g. pauses, hesitations, repetitions that occur in spontaneous speech.

What are non-fluency features?
Define ellipsis.

Leaving out words in spoken language because they are not needed, Just seen Jack, Tonight, 8pm.

Define ellipsis.
What are adjacency pairs?

An adjacency pair is composed of two utterances by two speakers, one after the other.

What are adjacency pairs?
What are repairs?

These are used when a speaker returns to correct a previously stated phrase or sentence, e.g. He sorry she broke the glass.

What are repairs?
What are vague expressions?

Similar to hedging, these are deliberately noncommittal expressions, e.g. anything, something, thing, whatsit.

What are vague expressions?
Example of Paper 1 Question 1 A/A* answer.

A/A* grade

Text A is multimodal as although it is in the electronic mode and uses interactivity such as hyperlinks and the search bar, there is also syntactical complexity meaning it is more like the written mode on the speech-writing continuum, shown through the subordinate and relative clause 'which was also occupied by Margaret Adeoye'. The intended audience for text A will be people who read the 'Metro', but more specifically, people who are interested in sport, particularly running in the Olympics. The purpose of this text is to relay information about the event, and clear up any confusion people may have about what occurred during the running event, even giving rules of the event, which allows the reader to make their own decision of Campbell-Brown's actions.

In text A the Metro is represented as helpful due to the hyperlinks and search bar which allows the user to navigate with ease and find the information they want to look at quickly and efficiently. The Metro is also represented as inclusive through the common noun 'club' which implies togetherness and creates a discourse community which will encourage the reader to want to join. The first person plural pronoun 'we' directly addresses the audience and makes them feel included through synthetic personalisation. The Metro representing itself as a large widespread company also encourages the reader to join the club throught the statistics '68.3M shares' and the evaluative adjective 'viral'.

Will Giles, the author, is represented as professional and educated on the topic through the noun phrase 'the rule' which serves as a subheading. Giles then goes on to explain 'the rule' positioning the audience as less-educated than him as he even adds extra information through the dynamic verb 'note'. The modal verb ;shall' has elocutionary force and gives the reader confidence in Giles as a professional, by him showing certainty in the topic.

Running is represented as a fair sport which allows all participants an equal chance. The past participles 'pushed' and 'forced' in the hypothetical clause 'if he is pushed or forced by another person' shows that some runners may be more inclined to win than show good sportmanship which represents the participants' social values and their desperation to win. However the main clause 'An athlete shall not be disqualified' shows that the victim of this will have no repercussions, depicting fairness although some may argue that the sport is not fair as the runner who pushes another does not have their consequences stated. The coordinate clause 'and no other athlete being jostled or obstructed so as to impede his progress' represents the competitiveness of running and allows the audience to see the runners can leave their lanes as long as it doesn't impact others. The noun 'progress' represents running as hard work and something the competitors have to work towards.

Veronnica Campbell-Brown is represented as successful through the comparative 'more' in the coordinate clause 'and has probably run more races...' This shows her in a positive way but the antithesis of the coordinate clause 'But despite all that experience she has still managed to RUN IN THE WRONG LANE' represents her as human as she made a mistake, and allows the audience to empathise with her. The semantic field implying mistakes include the evaluative adjectie 'wrong' and the dynamic verb 'broke' which represents Campbell-Brown in a more negative way as opposed to before.

Example of Paper 1 Question 1 A/A* answer.
(Partial Exemplars) Question 3 Compare and contrast Text A and Text B, showing ways in which they are similar and different in their language use. (20 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 19/20 = A* grade (95%)

In text A, sergeant Blackman is represented as being a victim which juxtaposes with the portrayal in B that he is guilty. This is achieved in A by the ending statement being given to Blackman (giving his word a sense of finality and truthfulness because it cannot be disputed) in which he uses the adverb 'villainously' to describe the court. 'Villainously' is associated with the semantic field of 'hero[s] and heroine[s]', where Blackman is presented as the hero. In the title, the noun phrase 'Royal marine' gives Blackman prestige and an authority to his actions, suggesting that he did the right thing by shooting the 'taliban fighter'. Article A is clearly biased in favour of Blackman's innocence, particularly because it contains no quotations from Blackman's anti-supporters, and instead focuses on the generalised and perceived popular opinion that 'everyone wanted [the taliban fighter]dead'.

The noun 'Taliban' is also included to elicit fear in the implied audience (supporters of Blackman) because it reminds people of terrorism. This contrasts with Royal Marine' and automatically puts Blackman in a righteous position.

Conversely, Article B implies the opposite, particularly demonstrated in terms of public opinion of Blackman because he is viewed as 'some kind of victim', the quantifier 'some' in this noun phrase adding cynicism. The article attains a somewhat unbiased view in that he is referred to as 'guilty' in the 'eyes of the law. In this sense, A and B are similar because their text producers are attempting to relay their biased views through others, as A showed support for Blackman through his cheering supporters. Both texts have the same primary purpose: to appear to report the news impartially, though their secondary purpose betrays their views about Blackman through their choices of witness.

However article B shows even less support for Blackman: the final word is given to the Ministry of Defence spokesman who says they respect the court's decision' and further comment would be 'inappropriate'. At a first glance this statement appears innocuously impartial, but since the implied audience for B are his opponents, it is likely to be included to suggest that the court's decision is wrong and Blackman should be charged guilty; surely if the spokesperson was supporting Blackman, his response could have been more personalised. Including this as the final word, the reader will feel uncertainty about the dropped charges, especially if such an esteemed individual (Ministry of Defence spokesman) is not completely in support of Blackman's release.

Though the implied audiences for both texts may be different concerning their views on Blackman, they are similar because their audiences are represented as readers of internet articles. Both articles share the sans serif but formal typography and the text is presented in small paragraphs. This structure follows the genre conventions of having small 'bites of information and direct language-'Blackman shot an insurgent'-to appeal to the online community who are busy, multitasking or skim reading quickly.

Claire blackman in text A is represented as an essential part of blackman's ordeal. She is portrayed as a loving wife and a 'heroine', and the inclusion of her first name, Claire, adds a sense of familiarity and therefore sympathy for her. Text B, however, neglects to mention her as much (almost representing her as insignificant), instead focusing more on the trial and the details of Blackman's offense. Text B could be represented as being less legitimate than A as it contains no quotations from Mrs Blackman or anyone else apart from the Ministry of Defense Spokesperson. However by not including Claire Blackman and focusing on relaying the facts, B could also be represented as being more trustworthy; people will give quotes that support their own views.

(Partial Exemplars) Question 3 Compare and contrast Text A and Text B, showing ways in which they are similar and different in their language use. (20 marks)
Define genderlect.

A genderlect describes the particular language used by men and women according to their gender.

Define genderlect.
What are tag questions?

Extra phrases added on to the end of sentences to make a question. Could be a sign of speaker support, uncertainty or a request for clarification.

What are tag questions?
What could tag questions be a sign of?

Could be a sign of speaker support, uncertainty or a request for clarification.

What could tag questions be a sign of?
What is back-channeling?

A feature to show the listener is supporting or paying attention to the speaker.

What is back-channeling?
What are fillers?

Non-verbal sounds that can act as pauses in speech, either naturally or to give a speaker thinking time. May signal speaker uncertainty, e.g. ‘er’ or ‘um’.

What are fillers?
Give a definition for skip-connectors.

Skip-connectors return to a previous topic of conversation and act as a type of discourse marker, e.g. anyway, coming back to our original discussion.

Give a definition for skip-connectors.
Define hedging.

A strategy used by a speaker to avoid directness or to try to avoid what could be a face-threatening act.

Define hedging.
Define gendered language.

Language that has a bias towards one of the two genders (normally men). This also defines androcentric.

Define gendered language.
Define marked term.

A marked term is a word that is stereotypically ‘belonging’ to a gender (where a word is ascribed to a certain gender.). Can also incorporate.

Define marked term.
Define generic term.

A word that contains ‘man’, e.g. man-made, human.

Define generic term.
How do marked terms and generic terms illustrate gendered language?

Marked terms can show. Generic terms exist because of stereotypes and the previous patriarchal society where women were not allowed to work.

How do marked terms and generic terms illustrate gendered language?
What does the term ‘Gender Exclusive Language’ mean?

When the male pronoun is applied to an unspecified individual, e.g. ‘If anyone would like to apply, he may do so inside’.

What does the term ‘Gender Exclusive Language’ mean?
What is lexical symmetry and asymmetry?

What is lexical symmetry and asymmetry?
What is an example lexical asymmetry?

Master vs Mistress.

What is an example lexical asymmetry?
More notes on suffixes and generic terms.

The suffix in Duch vs Duchess.

More notes on suffixes and generic terms.
How do men show their dominance in language?

Through their mean length of utterance.

How do men show their dominance in language?
What are the three approaches to English?

Deficit, dominance, difference and the performance approach.

What are the three approaches to English?
What is stipulated within the deficit approach to language and gender?

That male speech is seen as the standard and that wines speech is weaker or less than this standard. Robin Lakoff (1975) and Otto Jespersen’s theories were criticised as ‘Folklinguistics’ which is a more subjective to language.

What is stipulated within the deficit approach to language and gender?
Who termed the ‘report’ and ‘rapport’ styles of talk?

Deborah Tannen (1990) - Difference theorist.

Who termed the ‘report’ and ‘rapport’ styles of talk?
How did Tannen say that language was different?

Tannen's genderlect theory. She says that women use rapport talk to establish meaningful relationships with others, while men use report talk to gain status in relation to others.

How did Tannen say that language was different?
What does the term ‘report’ mean?

Report talk refers to more informative talk with an aim to build status.

What does the term ‘report’ mean?
What does the term ‘rapport’ mean?

Rapport talk refers to more emotional talk with an aim to build relationships.

What does the term ‘rapport’ mean?
Who claimed that men are more dominant in conversation?

Zimmerman and West - Dominance

Who claimed that men are more dominant in conversation?
What were Zimmerman and West’s findings on mixed sex conversations within their coffee shop study?

They claimed that men are more dominant in mixed sex conversation than women. They studied 31 conversations in a coffee shop between both men and women, they found that men would use minimal responses and violated rules of turn taking. Generally women are known more for conforming to rules of turn taking. The mixed sex interactions contained more overlaps.

What were Zimmerman and West’s findings on mixed sex conversations within their coffee shop study?
Who supported Zimmerman and West’s findings?

Dale Spender.

Who supported Zimmerman and West’s findings?
What does Dale Spender say about language?

She refers to the work of Z, to the view of the male as norm and to her own idea of patriarchal order. She claims that it is especially difficult to challenge this power system.

What does Dale Spender say about language?
How does Spender link to Sapir Whorf?

How does Spender link to Sapir Whorf?
Who was critical of Zimmerman and West’s study?

Geoffrey Beattie, in 1982, was critical of the Zimmerman and West findings: "The problem with this is that you might simply have one very voluble man in the study which has a disproportionate effect on the total." Beattie also questions the meaning of interruptions: "Why do interruptions necessarily reflect dominance? Can interruptions not arise from other sources? Do some interruptions not reflect interest and involvement?".

Who was critical of Zimmerman and West’s study?
Who claimed that women use more tag questions, intensifiers and swear less than men?

Robin Lakoff (1975) - Deficit

Who claimed that women use more tag questions, intensifiers and swear less than men?
What theorists stated that it is important to consider the context before making assumptions about gender?

William O’Barr and Bowman Atkins, Women’s Language or Powerless Language? (1980)

What theorists stated that it is important to consider the context before making assumptions about gender?
Whose theory is all about gender performativity?

Language and Gender Performativity - Judith Butler

Whose theory is all about gender performativity?
What is the idea of Language and Gender Performativity all about?

It is now widely accepted that gender is performative rather than innate’ we construct and perform our gender and we do this, in part, through the language we use. In different contexts, we are a different person. e.g. when watching football (perform masculine gender) but in a different context e.g. having nails done in a salon (perform female gender). Not all language features point to the same identity and we continue to vary our language to construct the identity we wish to project.

What is the idea of Language and Gender Performativity all about?
How was Beattie critical of Zimmerman and West’s study?

Geoffrey Beattie, in 1982, was critical of the Zimmerman and West findings: "The problem with this is that you might simply have one very voluble man in the study which has a disproportionate effect on the total." Beattie also questions the meaning of interruptions: "Why do interruptions necessarily reflect dominance? Can interruptions not arise from other sources? Do some interruptions not reflect interest and involvement?"

How was Beattie critical of Zimmerman and West’s study?
What did Beattie argue about men and women’s language?

Beattie himself claims to have recorded some 10 hours of tutorial discussion and some 557 interruptions (compared with 55 recorded by Zimmerman and West). Beattie found that women and men interrupted with more or less equal frequency (men 34.1, women 33.8) - so men did interrupt more, but by a margin so slight as not to be statistically significant.

What did Beattie argue about men and women’s language?
Who talked about conversational shitwork?

Pamela Fishman - Dominance

Who talked about conversational shitwork?
What does the idea of conversational shitwork mean?

Pamela Fishman argues in Interaction: the Work Women Do (1983) that conversation between the sexes sometimes fails, not because of anything inherent in the way women talk, but because of how men respond, or don't respond. Her very memorable phrase for the work that women do to keep a conversation going is ‘conversational shitwork’ (1977).

What does the idea of conversational shitwork mean?
What did Jeniffer Coates (1980s) argue about language?

On the issue of topic management and topic shifts: Men will often reject a topic of conversation introduced by women while women will accept the topics introduced by men. Men discuss ‘male’ topics e.g. business, sport, politics, economics. Women are more likely to initiate conversation than men, but less likely to make the conversation succeed.

What did Jeniffer Coates (1980s) argue about language?
Who supports Pamela Fishman’s theory?

Jennifer Coates (1980s) - Dominance

Who supports Pamela Fishman’s theory?
How does Pamela Fishman support Lakoff’s deficit theory?

In Conversational Insecurity (1990) Fishman questions Robin Lakoff's theories. Lakoff suggests that asking questions shows women's insecurity and hesitancy in communication, whereas Fishman looks at questions as an attribute of interactions: Women ask questions because of the power of these, not because of their personality weaknesses.

How does Pamela Fishman support Lakoff’s deficit theory?
How does Pamela Fishman support Zimmerman and West’s dominance theory?

Fishman also claims that in mixed-sex language interactions, men speak on average for twice as long as women. (Mean length of utterance)

How does Pamela Fishman support Zimmerman and West’s dominance theory?
What is the link between Fishman’s theory and androcentricity?

Men can reject a topic and women are left to do the ‘conversational shitwork’. Also, men spoke for twice as long as women (mean-length of utterance).

What is the link between Fishman’s theory and androcentricity?
Evaluate the idea that spoken interactions between men and women are characterised by miscommunications. (30 marks)

Miscommunications can be defined as not communicating adequately or effectively. Therefore the idea that men and women’s interactions are characterised by these suggests that the two genders are not compatible in conversation. This can be due to reasons such as women having inferior features in their language or men having a desire to dominate and take over.

One argument as to why there are miscommunications in language is that women have inferior language. Lakoff proposed the Deficit model which suggests there are distinguishable and lesser features of women’s language. For example, women use empty adjectives such as ‘lovely’ that carry little meaning and can be hard to interpret objectively thus leading to miscommunications. The model proposes that women also use indirect language, for example using epistemic modality, tag questions and question intonation on the end of statements. Thieves believed to result in miscommunication because it sounds uncertain and lacks certainty.

Whilst the deficit model suggests that women’s use of tag questions demonstrates their uncertainty and desire for approval in conversation, Pamela Fishman proposed that questions are an attribute of women’s language. She believes that women use tag questions because they are genuinely interested in conversation and want to invite response and encourage elaboration. This demonstrates the power of questions, rather than suggesting they are an inferior language feature and gateway to miscommunications.

Furthermore, the ‘inferior’ language features identified by Robin Lakoff are not universal to all women’s language and context is very important. On the TV programme ‘The Apprentice’ women can be. Seen in the boardroom using incredibly direct language that is free from empty adjectives and tag questions or hedges. This suggests that it is not general interactions between men and women that would be characterised by miscommunications, but rather it depends on what men and what women - who they are and what other parts of their identity are important.

Evaluate the idea that spoken interactions between men and women are characterised by miscommunications. (30 marks)
Evaluate the idea that spoken interactions between men and women are characterised by miscommunications. (30 marks)

The idea that men and women are characterised by miscommunication has been researched for many years. It is proven that men and women have physical differences obviously, however there may be some underlying differences which are difficult to uncover about the use of spoken language between the two genders. The topic of men and women using language differently is a highly controversial topic and it is the ideal research topic for many linguists to either, support, oppose or create a new idea completely.

One language theory that supports the main idea that men and women are different is the Deficit Model, Robin Lakoff. Lakoff provided a vision and a template for generations of further research, she suggested that women are more polite and have a poorer sense of humour than men. It was also proposed that men speak more than women. It was also suggested that specific linguistic and discoursive features marked the powerlessness of women within society and their subservient role to men. An example of these is tag questions, for example "this is nice, isn’t it?" and the use of hedges, "I’m not an expert but, you might want to restart your computer". The use of a hedge is to lessen the impact of an utterance.

Lakoff’s theory is supported by the data in the table above. It is evident in the first column of the table that men do speak more than women, the average turns per meeting for women was 9.9 whereas the male average turns per meeting was 24.7 which is a staggering difference of 14.8 turns on average.

A contradictory view point of the deficit theory is the work done by William O'Barr and Bowman Atkins in 1980. They analysed courtroom cases and witnesses' speech. The result that they found challenges Lakoff's view on women's language. In researching what they describe as 'powerless language' they show that linguistic patterns depend on the situation, specific authority or power, not gender. This could relate to the data in the table above as the men may be the higher authority within the meeting room and women lower, for example the men may be managers and the women staff. This could then explain the anomalies in the table like woman D and man E who do not comply too the ‘norms’ of their gender average so as an example woman D could be a manager and man E being an apprentice.

The dominance model is another theory which was founded by Zimmerman and West in (1975). They found that men interrupt conversations more than women, whom they concluded from their study of 11 conversations between men and women where men interrupted a total of 46 times compared to the women which was a total of 2. They concluded that since men interrupt more they are dominate or trying to gain dominance.

As demonstrated in the table above, women were recorded to interrupt between 0 and 2 times per meeting compared to an astonishing difference of 2 and 8 for men. These findings also support the theory of the Dominance Model as the men are interrupting more than the women. However, it can be seen in the table that the men are interrupting the other men as well as the women. This could be said to show that the men were worrying about their social hierarchy within the meeting and wanted to show confidence and dominance to make them respected. This idea would also explain the anomaly of woman D; the men could be seeing her as more of a threat as she is talking at the same levels as the other men. If they were to see her as a threat to their dominance it would clarify why she is being interrupted more than everyone else. This is a theory that is not mentioned within the dominance theory. This means that the data in the table goes further to show the difference in miscommunication amongst the two genders than the theory itself.

The third and final model is the difference model by Deborah Tannen in 1990. The difference theory states that men and women belong to different subcultures, this approach avoids blaming or being prejudiced towards men or women, it merely suggests that they communicate differently. She has come up with a series of 6 contrasts which are: Status vs support, Independence vs Intimacy, Advice vs understanding, information vs feelings, orders vs proposals and conflict vs compromise. In status vs support the difference approach suggests that men seek to achieve dominance over others in the conversation whereas women prefer supporting and giving conformation to the others. This would be supported by the data in the table as the women do not tend to interrupt anyone meaning they may try to be supportive and not discouraging to the others. In independence vs intimacy the difference approach suggests that men are focused on keeping their place in the hierarchy so refuse to ask if things are okay with their significant other whereas women indulge in the fact they console with their partners as a sense of intimacy. In advice vs understanding Tannen suggests that men would try and find a solution to the problem whereas women would give emotional support and stability. In information vs feelings the difference approach suggests that men only talk about informative subjects and that there conversations have a meaning behind them whereas women talk more about feelings and things that are not instructions or facts. In orders vs proposals men would tend to use direct imperatives when women say "shall we..." and "lets...". This is disputed by the data in the table above as if men were only using direct imperatives then their seconds per turn would be lower than the women, but this is not the case. In conflict vs compromise Tannen suggests men will announce their problem vocally whereas women would comply but complain a substantial amount.

There has been a recent story in the media, 31st May 2016, about Kit Harrington accusing the film industry of ‘sexism against men’. Harrington says that he accepts attitudes of sexism towards women in the industry however there isn’t much recognition for sexism towards men. He believes that if a woman said she did not appreciate being called a babe people would respect that whereas with him people laugh and say he is being silly or egotistical. Some bloggers have been criticising this as it would be argued that he was only employed for Game of Thrones because of his looks. Female blogger Jezebel pointed out that what Harington is talking about is feeling objectified, which is not something that just sticks with one gender. Harington’s comments have been ridiculed by many, including Jezebel who was quite clearly using sarcastic words when saying "wants the world to know there is more to him than being really, really, really ridiculously good-looking".

Overall all the linguists that have research the differences between male and female speech all have valid, well-argued points however each of the arguments cancel out the other. There still needs to be an extensive amount of further research to actually prove whether men and women speak differently, nevertheless it may always be a matter of opinion. Many factors could affect many different people with the way they use language, nature, nurture and also people may face speech problems due to disabilities or issues. It is hard to separate the reasons why we talk how we do, it is also hard to tell what factors impact in different ways in how we use language.

Original (archive)

Evaluate the idea that spoken interactions between men and women are characterised by miscommunications. (30 marks)
What is the difference between accent and dialect?

An accent is how one pronounces words - a style of pronunciation (phonology) whereas a dialect includes general vocabulary and grammar.

What is the difference between accent and dialect?
What is the difference between standard and non-standard English?

Standard English is the form of the English language widely accepted as the usual form - defined by its use of proper spelling, grammar and punctuation (rules). Non-standard English is an informal version of English that wouldn't be used in more formal or professional settings (no rules).

What is the difference between standard and non-standard English?
What is the difference between overt and covert prestige?

Social covert talk about jocks and burnouts

What is the difference between overt and covert prestige?
Define dialect levelling.

The merging of two dialects.

Define dialect levelling.
Define sociolect.

The dialect for a social group.

Define sociolect.
Define idiolect.

An individual’s style of speaking (speech habits), or ‘linguistic fingerprint’.

Define idiolect.
What is received pronunciation (RP)?

It is the accent with the highest prestige and therefore is the most socially accepted accent. This accent doesn’t reveal the nationality of speakers - this does not mean they don’t have an accent! Rather, they belong to a more privileged class.

What is received pronunciation (RP)?
Where is RP typically associated with?

Typically, RP is associated with the south (south east) because of connections to government and business. Today, you can find RP anywhere in the country.

Where is RP typically associated with?
Explain Howard Giles’ Communication Accommodation Theory (CAT).

Howard Giles proposed that when speakers seek approval in a social situation they are likely to change their speech so that it is similar to the listener. This is called convergent accommodation.

However, if the speaker wants to disassociate him/herself from the speaker, they may change their speech to show they are different. This is called divergent accommodation.

Explain Howard Giles’ Communication Accommodation Theory (CAT).
How did Peter Trudgill build on Labov’s findings in the late 60s?

Built on Labov’s findings in the late 60s. Wanted to know if Labov’s findings would also be applicable in the UK by exploring the dialect of Norwich.

People of lower socio-economic status were more likely to use non-standard linguistic variants in informal settings; whilst men were more likely to over emphasise their use of non-standard variants. This was explored with the use of ‘-ing’, e,g. ‘shoppin’/‘shopping’. This feature was more often used within working class individuals than middle class, and by men rather than women.

How did Peter Trudgill build on Labov’s findings in the late 60s?
Evaluate the idea that where someone comes from affects the language they use. (30 marks)

Accent refers to the way people pronounce sounds, e.g. Cockney, Geordie, Cornish, Essex, etc. (phonemes and phonology) whereas dialect refers to vocabulary and grammar used by people, e.g. Yorkshire "It’s silin’ down" - it’s pouring with rain (lexis, vocabulary and grammar). All over Britain there are various different kinds of accents and dialects, making them the distinctive ways in which where you’re from can be determined, also that there cannot be an ‘accentless’ speech, everyone has an accent. These different accents can include the standard form of English, Received Pronunciation with attitudes and stereotypes viewing it as the more overt prestige and standard way of speaking. In comparison with attitudes to non-standard varieties like regional rural accents, like Wiltshire, Cornish accents and regional urban accents like MLE, Cockney accents. People have a range of attitudes towards each of these accents - viewing them as either undedicated and informal, or cooler and more relatable to certain generations, for example with younger people.

The idea that where someone comes, from can predominantly affect the language that they use. With the additional factor of that person’s sociolect influencing their accent and dialect, and even how they talk may also reflect on their social class that they belong to. For example, stereotypically talking someone from a lower social class may use a more non-standard variety of English, like a Liverpool Scouse accent. It is famously known for its harsh, nasal tones and is distinctly different from various other accents in the UK. According to Watson’s study of Liverpool speech (2008) its main features being TH-Stopping, where the TH sounds are very plosive, H-dropping; for example (H)ouse and (H)orrible, as well as being non-rhotic where the /r/ sound is silent, apart from when followed by s vowel sound. These distinctive features would be an obvious pinpoint to where someone comes from, just because of the language features they use. Society may view the Liverpool accent with various different stereotypes that are attached to it, people may feel like they would like to change their accent, using upwards convergence. Howard Giles’s Communication Accommodation theory demonstrated that individuals adapt aspects of their own language to signal their feelings about the person that they are talking to and when looking into things like job interviews, people higher in the occupation hierarchy may feel like they can belittle and judge you for the accent that you speak in and may even not employ you due to this but using the Accommodation theory, you may secure a job for yourself and come across as more respected having an accent that people don’t condone you for. This therefore shows that where you come from does affect language use - people with less prestige accents and dialects (e.g. Wiltshire, Yorkshire) may upwards converge to the overt prestige/standard (Received Pronunciation) to gain better job opportunities for themselves.

Regional rural accents have typical features that you may stereotypically connect with those accents. For example, South West accents like the Cornish and Wiltshire accent feature overemphasis of on the rhotic /r/. Examples include in saying words like ‘cart’ and ‘tractor’ where the /r/ phoneme would be heavily pronounced. Even though this feature is found consistently in these accents, it is not only in these that using the rhotic /r/ is popular in. William Labov conducted The Social Stratification of English in New York City (1966) to which he concluded that differences in the pronunciation of certain phonemes could be attributed to social class. He investigated the way that speakers of a language change their speech consciously and unconsciously according to the situations they face and who they are talking to. This was carried out in 3 different department stores, all representing different social classes (upper, middle and lower class). He then examined the ways that the employees in these stores would pronounce the phrase "fourth floor" and while doing this looked at their usage or non-usage of the postvocalic /r/. He found that those belonging to a higher social class preferred the usage of the rhotic /r/, and the middle and lower class tended to use it less frequently. This shows us that even though the rhotic /r/ is most associated with West Country accents, a more non-standard and covert prestige way of speaking. On the other hand, employees may feel like they have to upwards converge their speech when talking to customers if they’re working in an affluent, expensive shop as stereotypically people who shop there are belonging more to a higher social class and may tend to use a RP accent. So rather than the place that they come from affecting their language, it could also be down to who they’re talking to and where they are working that would affect the language that they use. However, Labov’s 1966 theory may be outdated as social stereotypes and attitudes may have change. There is also no supporting theory.

The UK is a big tourism attraction, and has had a massive history of migration, where people from other countries across Europe would migrate to live here. Multi-Cultural London English is a dialect of London English which emerged since the early 1980s in parts of London where immigration levels were relatively high. MLE is based on the traditional East End Cockney accent. MLE speakers pronounce their ‘H’s whereas Cockney speakers have the distinctive drop of the ‘H’ sounds in words like (H)ouse and in words like ‘home’ the ‘o’ phoneme is rather like a Scottish or Newcastle vowel. MLE came from WW2 immigrants that came to London from the West Indies, where Jamaicans were invited to come and work after the war. They brought their language if Jamaican Patois and this then bloomed into MLE. This emergence of a new accent would influence people having a multiethnolect, where people who have travelled and moved, either abroad or around the country and this would then affect the language that they use. This is because they are continuously mixing their language with others and would then pick up on other accents and dialects, which would therefore influence a multiethnolect by the process of dialect levelling as the two dialects are being brought together. Labov in 1963 conducted Martha’s Vineyard study where he was interested in phonological variation and he investigated the /au/ and /ai/ vowel sounds, in words like ‘mouse’ and ‘mice’ which in linguistic terms is a diphthong. Martha’s Vineyard was a small island located off the North East coast of America. This islands population was small, but in the summer months the figure would swell as it was a popular holiday resort for lots of Americans. Labov interviewed 69 people, all from different social, ethnic and age groups and gave them interviews to subtly encourage the participants to say words containing the vowels he wished to study. He asked them questions so observer bias wasn’t present and so that they could use their own answer. He found that the pronunciation of the vowel sounds were changing from the standard American pronunciations. People in the age group 30-60 tend to centralise diphthongs more than younger or older people, and up-islanders used the centralised diphthongs more than people living in the down-island. This was because the change down-island was more populated and summer tourism attracted more visitors to that area which then caused a change in the accent and dialect of the island. As more and more people came to speak in the same way, the innovation gradually became the norm for those living on the island and was established as a dialect. Therefore, there seems to be enough evidence to state that generations, occupations, or social groups might be a big factor in the ways that it affects language use.

Hearing someone’s accent can be a clear determiner to where that person comes from, but the question can be do they actually come from there? Lots of factors like social class, their occupation, travelling, migration and the people that they are with has a huge impact on the language that they use which may confiuse people to where they come from. Accents also play a huge part in the way someone is treated and the attitudes towards them and their accents. People may not like a person just because of some negative stereotypes that come with that accent. But yet language is still affected by where someone comes from.

Evaluate the idea that where someone comes from affects the language they use. (30 marks)
What is an idiolect?

An individual's dialect.

What is an idiolect?
What is a sociolect?

A social group’s dialect.

What is a sociolect?
What is the difference between restricted and elaborated code?

Restricted = Highlights speech patterns used by the working class. Language used to bring unity between people.

What is the difference between restricted and elaborated code?
What is the key theme within language and occupation?

Power

What is the key theme within language and occupation?
Which theorist, in 1999, said that there are many ways that people can use language to show power?

Watering (1999).

Which theorist, in 1999, said that there are many ways that people can use language to show power?
Who came up with the idea of critical discourse analysis (CDA)?

Fairclough Power in/Behind

Who came up with the idea of critical discourse analysis (CDA)?
Who expected that different people in the occupational hierarchy would speak differently?

Drew and Heritage

Who expected that different people in the occupational hierarchy would speak differently?
Name the 5 parts of Drew and Heritage’s.

Turntaking, goal,

Name the 5 parts of Drew and Heritage’s.
What can occur as a result of the usage of professional lexis or jargon?

Miscommunication

What can occur as a result of the usage of professional lexis or jargon?
Who talks about politeness theory?

Brown and Levison.

Who talks about politeness theory?
What is ‘saving face’?

A face-saving act maintains their positive image.

What is ‘saving face’?
Who supports face

Erving Goffman

Who supports face
What is the difference between positive and negative face?

Positive face is a more direct way (compliments/flattery talk/ultra positive) with an aim to be liked or approved by other. Negative face is more indirect and avoids deference.

What is the difference between positive and negative face?
How does politeness link to the workplace?

Because in the workplace you are expected to be professional. However, some people may break these politeness rules.

How does politeness link to the workplace?
What is the difference between a face threatening and a face-saving act?

A face-saving act maintains a positive face (image).

What is the difference between a face threatening and a face-saving act?
What did Drew and Heritage (2003) say about discourse communities?

Drew and Heritage (2003) suggests that members of a discourse community share inferential frameworks - knowledge built up over time and used to understand implicit meanings within an organisation.

What did Drew and Heritage (2003) say about discourse communities?
What is the core theme that links all of the social classes we have looked at?

Identity.

What is the core theme that links all of the social classes we have looked at?
When exploring language and social groups, what two aspects of language is it important to consider?

When exploring language and social groups, what two aspects of language is it important to consider?
What are all of the different types of social groups?

What are all of the different types of social groups?
How would you/others define social class? Consider how it is difficult to define.

How would you/others define social class? Consider how it is difficult to define.
What assumptions/stereotypes do people make about someone’s social class?

What assumptions/stereotypes do people make about someone’s social class?
Why do people speak differently at different ages

Elderlect.

Why do people speak differently at different ages
Give an example of how someone of one age might speak differently to someone of a different age? Why?

Give an example of how someone of one age might speak differently to someone of a different age? Why?
What do we mean by ethnicity?

What do we mean by ethnicity?
What do we mean by ethnolect?

What do we mean by ethnolect?
What do we mean by multiethnolect?

An example would be MLE which is formed by Jamaican Patois and Cockney.

What do we mean by multiethnolect?
What is diachronic variation?

Diachronic variation refers to a change in language over time.

What is diachronic variation?
Name each of the 8 types of word formation process.

Lexis, semantics, orthography, phonological, morphological, syntactical, discourse, pragmatics.

Name each of the 8 types of word formation process.
Explain each word formation process.

Lexis

  • Abbreviation - Can be initialisms, acronym, shortening or contraction.
  • Initialism - An initialism is formed from the first letters of a group of words. We pronounce each letter individually, e.g. BBC, MOD, GCSE, GCE.
  • Acronym - An acronym is formed from the first letters of a group of words. We pronounce the acronym as a word, e.g. STEM, RAM, NASA, NATO.
  • Shortening - A shortening is an abbreviation in which the beginning or end of the word has been omitted, e.g. ad, app, flu, blog.
  • Contraction - Contractions are abbreviations in which we omit letters from the middle of a word. We do NOT write a full stop at the end of a contraction. The first letter is a capital letter only if the full word starts with a capital letter, e.g. Dr, govt, St, Mr.
Explain each word formation process.
What could a question involving Language Change look like?
  • Evaluate the idea that language is decaying. (30 marks)
  • Evaluate the idea that the English language is in a state of decline. (30 marks)
What could a question involving Language Change look like?
Evaluate ways in which the English Language and its use have changed since the mid twentieth century. (30 marks)

From the mid-twentieth century, the English Language has undergone diachronic variation - it has adapted and changed to become modernised and caught up with society in terms of social attitudes, new technology and random errors that have become standardised in certain cases. Because of this, we can see the considerable shift in lexis and semantics from before the mid-twentieth century until now, potentially resulting due to Aitchison’s theory of decay, progress, both or neither.

Firstly, there is a considerable difference in social attitudes and tolerance to people of different gender, ethnicities and sexuality between now and the pre-1950s. Because of these changing attitudes, language has been adapted to remove certain lexis that are now considered offensive. For example, the slur ‘faggot’ - commonly used to degrade a gay person - is now considered to be an inexcusable term to refer to a person. This agrees with Aitchison’s theory that language changes almost due to ‘decay’ in particular the insurgence of reclaiming certain words in regard to political correctness. For example, the term ‘queer’ - which was also a inflammatory pejorative term (insult) towards gay men - has become ameliorated to describe a person’s identity and sexual preference, this is due to the LGBT community’s reclamation of the word. Because of this, it is understandable to see the influence that societal attitudes and political correctness has over modern-day society, therefore showing that the English language has both lost the derogatory meaning of words and transformed them in the short space of approximately 50 years.

Aside from this, language has changed recently due to the advancements in technology which in turn have led to a number of word formation processes including neologism (coinage) and a number of different abbreviations to simplify complex technological terms. Expanding upon this, new inventions such as the ‘car’ - which is an abbreviation of ‘carriage’ - require different names for all of its particular parts, such as gear stick or transmission (both neology) or ABS. In this instance ‘ABS’ is an initialism (Anti-lock Braking System) has been abbreviated due to ease of articulation and Halliday’s functional theory, where language has been adapted to suit the needs of the individual. Similarly, the rise in social media has included a vast array of neologisms (coinages) that have become mainstream in much of our language today - especially in the speech of younger people. An example of this is ‘selfie’ which is a slang term for ‘self-portrait’ - needed updating due to advances in society and hence changes in the contextual meaning of the word (cameraphones instead of canvases and easels). Both of these examples show that due to the creation of new words within the English Language, we have been able to either shorten and abbreviate words and phrases for convenience or invent new ones to name things that have never previously existed in the same way. In addition, functional theory also plays a part in different aspects of technology like the generic words ‘hoover’ and ‘google’ - company brand names that are now used widely as verbs in order to make language shorter and easier to get across. In this case, Aitchison’s theory of progress aligns with Halliday’s functional theory to show that language has changed to become easier and quicker to apply in both conversation and in writing.

Finally, the English Language may have changed to in the past 50 years due to less regional variation as a result of standardised language within the media - especially in regard to the influence of the US in the media in terms of news, sitcoms as well as American-English becoming the most popular dialect around the world. For example, Americanisms can even be seen in orthography with lexis such as ‘judgment’ being more commonly spelt in the American way ‘judgement’. This is because it is likely seen more over the news where affairs in the US are seen to be more influential worldwide compared to in the UK. This links to the stratum theory, where American-English is becoming a superstratum in its form of language may be becoming standardised across the world, causing British-English to potentially become a substratum eventually resulting in the obsolescence of certain British-English variations like the omission of /u/ in nouns like ‘colour’ and ‘favour’. Within the two programming languages key in making websites (globally), HTML and CSS, this new standard omission (of the ‘U’) can be seen. This could link with Aitchison’s third theory where language change occurs because it is inevitable and history demands it, showing that it is beyond our control and these Americanisms may become standardised around the globe. In this case, language has changed to almost become more ‘American’ due to their influence as a superpower country (US pop. 330 m vs UK pop. 67 m) within the media, showing that language has been altered to serve their forms of English.

Overall, the English language has ultimately changed to become easier to use and to be more inclusive in terms of political correctness and acceptance but may still be in a process of change to suit American speakers above everybody else. In conclusion, it is plausible to say that Halliday’s functional theory is true in its findings that language changes to suit the needs of the speaker. This is done consciously with the forcing of change in regard to political correctness and even unconsciously with the insurgence of Americanisms that many non-American speakers may find thesmelves using in both orthography and phonology.

Evaluate ways in which the English Language and its use have changed since the mid twentieth century. (30 marks)
A diagram showing CLA Question Framework.

Click here to view the diagram

A diagram showing CLA Question Framework.
CLA Question Framework

PET FACT

  • Point - Make a point
  • Evidence - Use an example from the text
  • Terminology - Link to terminology
  • Framework - Link to Lexis, Grammar, Graphology etc.
  • Analysis - Analyse the evidence, find patterns if possible
  • Context - Link to context, time of the text etc.(Language Change), how old the child is etc. (Child Language Acquisition)
  • Theory - Link to theorists
CLA Question Framework
Success Criteria for Question 4/5.
Success Criteria for Question 4/5.
Summary of all Child Language Acquisition theorists.
  • Nature Chomsky - Nature argument
  • B.F. Skinner - Nurture argument
  • The Fis Phenomenon by J. Berko and R. Brown (1960)
  • Aitchison - Stages of Acquisition of Words and their Meanings (1987)
  • Jerome Bruner
  • Lev Vygotsky - The Zone of Proximal Development
  • Halliday's language functions
  • John Dore's language functions
Summary of all Child Language Acquisition theorists.
What is phonology?

What is phonology?
What is a phoneme?

What is a phoneme?
What is the International Phonetic Alphabet?

What is the International Phonetic Alphabet?
Key theorists for phonology (AO2) within CLA include?

Berko and Brown (fis phenomenon), stages of phonological development (cooing, babbling, etc.), CDS (child-directed speech).

Key theorists for phonology (AO2) within CLA include?
What is manner of articulation?

What is manner of articulation?
What is place of articulation?

What is place of articulation?
What is a fricative?

What is a fricative?
What is plosive?

What is plosive?
What is addition?

Adding an extra vowel sound to the end of words, creating a CVCV pattern. For example, doggie.

What is addition?
What is assimilation?

Changing one consonant or vowel for another (as in the early plosive sounds 'd' and 'b'. For example, 'gog' for 'dog'.

What is assimilation?
What is substitution?

Substituting one sound for another (especially the 'harder' sounds which develop later. For example, 'wabbit' for 'rabbit'.

What is substitution?
What is deletion?

Omitting the final consonant in words. For example, do(g) or c(up).

What is deletion?
What is reduplication?

Repeating a whole syllable. For example, dada, mama.

What is reduplication?
What is consonant cluster reduction?

Consonant clusters can be difficult to articulate, so children reduce them to smaller units. For example, 'pider' for 'spider'.

What is consonant cluster reduction?
What is celetion of unstressed syllables?

Omitting the opening syllable in polysyllabic words. For example, 'nana' for 'banana'.

What is celetion of unstressed syllables?
What is child-directed speech?

What is child-directed speech?
What are key features of phonology within CDS? (AO1)
  • Slower, clear pronunciation
  • Higher pitch
  • Exaggerated intonation
What are key features of phonology within CDS? (AO1)
What are key features of lexis within CDS? (AO1)
  • Simpler, restricted vocabulary
  • Diminutive forms, e.g. doggie
  • Concrete lexis referring to objects in immediate surroundings
What are key features of lexis within CDS? (AO1)
What are key features of grammar within CDS? (AO1)
  • Simpler constructions
  • Frequent use of imperatives
  • Lots of repetition
  • Frequent questions
  • Use of personal names instead of pronouns
What are key features of grammar within CDS? (AO1)
What are Exaggerated Prosodic Cues?

Using more exaggerated intonation patterns and slightly higher frequencies, greater pitch variations, e.g. Uh oh!

What are Exaggerated Prosodic Cues?
What is recasting?

Phrasing sentences in different ways, such as making it a question, e.g. "dada byebye daddy… Is daddy going byebye? Commenting, extending and rephrasing of the utterance.

What is recasting?
What is echoing?

Repeating what the child said.

What is echoing?
What is expansion?

Restating what the child said in a more linguistically sophisticated form, e.g. "ball all gone" = "Yes, we lost the ball". Development of the utterance into a longer, more meaningful form.

What is expansion?
What is expation?

Expounding further on the word by giving more information, e.g. (baba hot) > Yes, the bottle is hot. We’ll wait until later.

What is expation?
What is labelling?

Providing the name of objects, using simplified vocabulary.

What is labelling?
What is overarticulating?

Using more precise sounds contained in the words, stretching out sounds, sounding out 'super-vowels'.

What is overarticulating?
What are stereotypical ideas about 'motherese'?

That they use exaggerated tone, wide range and variability of pitch, simplified language, expansion & recasting, teaches the words.

What are stereotypical ideas about 'motherese'?
What are stereotypical ideas about 'fatherese'?

That they use not much different from non-CDS, teaches the grammar.

What are stereotypical ideas about 'fatherese'?
What is the whole object assumption?

What is the whole object assumption?
What is overextension?

Generalising a word to contain things that the word does not apply to, e.g. all four-legged furry creatures are 'dogs'. Not overgeneralising because overextension is about lexis.

What is overextension?
What is categorical overextension?

The name for one of a category is extended to all members of the category, e.g. Apple used for all round fruits. (60% of overextension) See Rescorla (1980) - Types of overextension.

What is categorical overextension?
What is analogical overextension?

A word for one object is extended to one in a different category; usually on the basis that it has some physical or functional connection, e.g. ball used for a round fruit. (15% of overextension) See Rescorla (1980) - Types of overextension.

What is analogical overextension?
What are mismatch statements?

One-word sentences that appear quite abstract; child makes a statement about one object in relation to another, e.,g. Saying 'duck' when looking at an empty pond. (25% of overextension) See Rescorla (1980) - Types of overextension.

What are mismatch statements?
What is underextension?

Thinking that a word only refers to the specific example, e.g. only that particular dog is a 'dog'.

What is underextension?
What is hyponymy?

Once children expand their vocabulary they use network-building to sort the words. An aspect of this stage is an understanding of the hyponymy, the links between lexical items that divides into hypernyms and hyponyms.

What is hyponymy?
What is hypernym?

The name of a category. For example, 'vegetable' is a hypernym, and 'carrot', 'cabbage' and 'onion' are all hyponyms.

What is hypernym?
What is hyponym?

The name of a category member. For example, 'carrot' is a hyponym of the category 'vegetable'.

What is hyponym?
What is syntax?

What is syntax?
What is morphology?

What is morphology?
What is the holophrastic stage?

This occurs at 12-18 months and usually consists of single word utterances, e.g. 'teddy', 'gone', 'more'.

What is the holophrastic stage?
What is the two-word stage?

This involves children using two words to create mini-sentences, with the words order often resembling adult speech. Usually occurs at 18-24 months.

What is the two-word stage?
What is the telegraphic stage?

At the telegraphic stage there is a lack of function words: there is generally an absence of prepositions, conjunctions and articles. These utterances consist mainly of content words - nouns and verbs. Occurs at about 24-36 months old.

What is the telegraphic stage?
What is the post-telegraphic stage?

More grammatically complex combinations. Occurs beyond 36 months.

What is the post-telegraphic stage?
What is the mean length utterance (MLU)?

What is the mean length utterance (MLU)?
What is overgeneralisation?

A learner's extension of a word or grammatical rule beyond its normal use, e.g. mouses instead of mice (overgeneralising the -s plural form). Not overextension because overgeneralisation is about grammar.

What is overgeneralisation?
What is virtuous errors?

Syntactic errors made by young children in which the non-standard utterance reveals some understanding, though incomplete, of standard syntax. They also show that children are creative with language.

What is virtuous errors?
What are inflections (inflectional morphology)?

What are inflections (inflectional morphology)?
A table summarising theorists for phonetics and phonology.

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A table summarising theorists for phonetics and phonology.
What is pragmatics?
  • Semantics + Context
  • The branch of linguistics dealing with language in use and the contexts in which it is used, including such matters as deixis, the taking of turns in conversation, text organisation, presupposition, and implicature.
  • It refers to the way we often create or shape meaning through inference.
  • Often, social context is responsible for the shaping, even the creation, of meaning.
  • In other words - you sometimes need to have knowledge of the context of an utterance or a text in order to interpret it accurately.
  • It's about politeness.
  • It's connected to conversation management and turn taking.
What is pragmatics?
Name all theorists for spoken CLA.

Name all theorists for spoken CLA.
Noam Chomsky

Language Acquisition Device

  • The capacity to acquire language is innate within humans
  • human brain is pre-programmed to acquire grammatical structures
  • Human languages share many similarities, which he calls Universal Grammar

Nativist Theory

  • Humans have an inbuilt capability to acquire language ( FOR: children often experience the same stages of development at similar paces and often make their own rules for language or overgeneralise - AGAINST:children need alot of imput to use language 'correctly' and children who have been deprived of social contact often cannot achieve communicative competence)
Noam Chomsky
Berko and Brown - 'fis' test
  • Theory from the 1960s
  • Found that a child who referred to a fish as a 'fis',substituting the 's' sound for 'sh', couldn't link the adult's use of 'fis' with the same animal

CHILD: A fis.
ADULT: Is this your fis?
CHILD: No. A Fis
ADULT: Is this your fish?
CHILD: Yes, my fis.

Berko and Brown - 'fis' test
Katherine Nelson - First Words
  • Theory from 1973
  • Categorised children's first words into four groups
    • Naming (things or people) - eg. 'Daddy'
    • Actions/Events - eg. 'cuddle'
    • Describing/Modifying things - eg. 'more'
    • Personal/social words - eg. 'bye-bye'
  • She found that 60% of first words are nouns (and therefore in the 'naming' group)
Katherine Nelson - First Words
Leslie Rescorla Categories of Overextension

Divided overextension into three categories

  • Catergorical Overextension - the name of one member of a category is extended to all members of the category - eg. all round fruits called an 'apple'
  • Analogical Overextension - a word for one object is used for one in a different category - eg. 'ball' used for all round fruit
  • Mismatch Statements - one-word sentences which appear quite abstract / a child makes a statement about one object in relation to another (eg. saying 'duck' when looking at an empty pond)
Leslie Rescorla Categories of Overextension
Jean Piaget - Cognitive
  • Language acquisition is part of a wider development of understanding
  • He argued that children will only acquire more complex forms when their intellectual development can cope so trying to teach things before they are ready will be unsuccesful
  • He advocated 'Discovery Learning' (learning by doing)
  • FOR: children don't seem to grasp language until they are ready
  • AGAINST:'fis' phenomenon suggests children's cognitive understanding can be present but their physical development may still impact their ability to use language and children can acquire without having an understanding of it
  • Cognitive = mental processes
Jean Piaget - Cognitive
Berko - Wugs
  • provided evidence for the belief that children overgeneralise
  • "this is a wug. Now there is another one. There are two of them. There are two____."
  • Three-quarters of 4-5 year olds surveyed formed the regular plural ‘Wugs'.
Berko - Wugs
Michael Halliday - Functions of Speech
  • Instrumental - to fufil a need (eg. want juice)
  • Regulatory - to influence the behaviour of others (eg. pick up)
  • Interactional - to build social relationships (eg. Love you)
  • Personal - conveying opinions, ideas and personal identity (eg. Me like Charlie and Lola)
  • Representational - facts and information (eg. it cold)
  • Imaginative - creating an imaginary world (eg. me mum you dad)
  • Heuristic - to learn about their environment (eg. what's that?)
Michael Halliday - Functions of Speech
John Dore - Language Functions
  • Labelling - naming
  • Repeating - repeating an adult's word/utterance
  • Answering - responding to another speaker's utterance
  • Requesting Action - asking or something to be done for them
  • Calling - getting attention
  • Greeting - greeting someone or something
  • Protesting - objecting to a request from others
  • Practising - not speaking directly to someone / speaking to yourself
John Dore - Language Functions
Jerome Bruner

Language Acquisition Support System (LASS)

  • The child's interaction with the adults around them
  • Rituals and games like the alphabet song or 'Peek-a-Boo' are educational
  • Belived there were four phases of parent-child interactions with books
    1. Gaining attention (eg.getting the baby's attention on a picture
    2. Querying (eg. asking the baby what the picture is of)
    3. Label (eg. telling the baby what the picture is of)
    4. Feedback (eg. repsonding to the baby's utterences)

Scaffolding

  • Observed that adults gradually withdraw support as their childrens' skills develop
Jerome Bruner
Features of Child Directed Speech
  • Repetition
  • Higher pitch
  • Present tense
  • Fewer verbs/modifiers
  • Concrete nouns
  • Yes/no questioning
  • One-word utterences
  • Expansions or recasts
Features of Child Directed Speech
Skinner - Behaviourist Theory
  • Language is acquired through imitation and reinforcement
  • FOR: children do imitate accent and dialect, learn politeness strategies and repeat what they hear around them
  • AGAINST: children don't only imitate they can produce sentences they have never heard before, hear ungrammatical language around them but can still learn correct language, do not seem to repsond to correction and can imitate but not necessarily understand meanings
Skinner - Behaviourist Theory
Name all theorists for written CLA.

Name all theorists for written CLA.
Britton - categories of children's writing
  • Expressive - first mode to develop, resembles speech, written in first person
  • Poetic - develops gradually, requires skills in crafting and shaping language, phonological features such as rhyme and alliteration and descriptive features such as adjectives are common
  • Transactional - last mode to develop (around secondary school age), more academic style, more impersonal and detached tone, formal sentence structures and graphological features (eg. paragraphing)
Britton - categories of children's writing
Spelling stages
  • Prephonetic - scribilling using pretend writing
  • Semi-phonetic - Link letter shapes and sounds
  • Phonetic - understanding that all phonemes are represented by graphemes and words become more complete
  • Transitional - awareness of more spelling rules and combinations of letters and letter patterns
  • Conventional - Spell most words correctly
Spelling stages
Types of Spelling Errors
  • Insertion - adding letters
  • Omission - leaving letters out
  • Substitution - substituting a letter for another
  • Transposition - reversing the correct word order
  • Phonetic Spelling - using sound to guess letters
  • Over/undergeneralising spelling rules - applying or not applying rules when not appropriate
  • Salient (Key) sounds - writing only the main/key sounds
Types of Spelling Errors
What is Halliday's Language Functions?

Michael A. K. Halliday labelled different functions of speech to 'group' together various utterances.

What is Halliday's Language Functions?
Name each of Halliday's Language Functions.
  • Instrumental function
  • Interactional function
  • Regulatory function
  • Personal function
  • Heuristic function
  • Imaginative function
  • Representational function
Name each of Halliday's Language Functions.
What is the instrumental function?

Children learn the instrumental function first - language used to satisfy material needs, e.g. 'more juice’.

What is the instrumental function?
What is the interactional function?

Interactional is language whose purpose is to maintain friendly relationships or start a conversation.

What is the interactional function?
What is the regulatory function?

Regulatory is language used to control others.

What is the regulatory function?
What is the personal function?

Personal is emotional language which releases stress, involuntary responses to pain, fear, beauty, etc., as well as expressing 'the self' - identity and social grouping.

What is the personal function?
What is the heuristic function?

Heuristic is language seeking information.

What is the heuristic function?
What is the imaginative function?

Imaginative is the language of creative writing, poetry and many children's games involving the creation of another world.

What is the imaginative function?
What is the representational function?

Representational is language that communicates information or ideas.

What is the representational function?
Examples of the Different Language Functions
  • I want more apple. (Instrumental)
  • What is an apple? (Heuristic)
  • An apple is a fruit. (Representational)
Examples of the Different Language Functions
What is orthography?

The spelling system

What is orthography?
What is the definition of a genre?

Genre is a style/category/type of literature.

What is the definition of a genre?
Name two cognitive theorists.

The Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget (1964) and the Russian psychologist Vygotsky (1934).

Name two cognitive theorists.
A table showing Jean Piaget’s 1936 Stages of Cognitive Development.

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A table showing Jean Piaget’s 1936 Stages of Cognitive Development.
(Partial Exemplars) Child directed speech is the most important reason for language development (30 marks)

Total mark for the essay question: 30/30 = A* grade (100%)

In the transcript, a father is shown to be reading an alphabet book with his son. The Importance of child directed speech (CDS) is demonstrated throughout the transcript, especially in the abundance of the use of the Initiation Response Feedback structure. This is exercised when a parent asks a question, the child responds, and the parent offers a criticism, for example, in terms of Jamie, the father asks, where's jamie's hand?' to which Jamie spreads his hand out and the father responds 'yes, that's right'. The IRF structure is important in furthering the reaction between caregiver and child, and gaining the child's attention-an important feature of CDS. The 'Feedback' section of the IRF model is not dissimilar to Skinner's operant conditioning theory, in which he theorised that children's language is shaped by caregivers through positive reinforcement (for standard grammar and pronunciation) and negative reinforcement (for non-standard linguistic usage) therefore making them more likely to speak in the correct manner. However this theory is heavily criticised, firstly as negative reinforcement is rarely used as children are more likely to be corrected on the truth factor of what they say rather than linguistic accuracy, and that negative reinforcement can hinder language development and children don't respond to it. The effectiveness of IF can therefore be questioned.

Developing from the initiation section, caregivers may often ask questions they know answers to, for example when Phil says 'what's that?' This draws a response from the child and maintains the social interaction, whilst also illustrating that the parent knows more that the child and is helping them to learn. This validates Vygotsky's scaffolding theory; that children lear language through support from caregivers who are classed as a more knowledgeable other. Caregivers therefore lead children to their zone of proximal development, an area just outside their current attainment level. Whilst this scaffolding does not apply exclusively to CDS, it could include CDS as a subunit of the aforementioned interaction.

Jamie appears to be just developing into the holophrastic stage; reduplication is abundant in his vocabulary, ' pen pen', 'gen gen gen' and some reduplicated babbling ('ni ni') remains present. Katherine nelson, at this stage, found that parents who utilised word choice correction not pronunciation correction had children that developed more slowly. This once again disproves the effectiveness of operant conditioning, and suggesting that features of CDS such as expansion (when caregivers develop what children say in a more complex manner) may not be as effective as recasting (when caregivers repeat the grammatically standard version of the child's non-standard utterance back to them). In this sense, CDS is not the most important feature; the type of CDS used can be suggested to be important as to whether it nurtures or hinders language development. The child also demonstrates use of over extension; Jamie views the picture of the queen and says 'mummy', suggesting that he identifies all women as being his mother. Phil then replies using expansion: '...Oh, Mummy's a queen' adopting the use of the diminutive and correcting the truth factor of what Jamie has said to some extent (by introducing Jamie to the idea of a Queen) without hindering the development by using negative reinforcement or a complete correction. In this sense, the 'gap filling' idea expressed by Aitchison to explain overextension is addressed; she theories that children overextend as they recognise the difference between two things, but don't yet know the new word. The expansion therefore

(Partial Exemplars) Child directed speech is the most important reason for language development (30 marks)
Place value and rounding in detail

Equal, Greater or Less Than Symbols

  • < means less than
  • ≤ means less than or equal to
  • ≠ means not equal to
  • > means greater than
  • ≥ means greater than or equal to

Rounding Numbers

  • To round a number look at the next smaller digit
    • next digit = 0, 1, 2, 3 or 4 round down
    • next digit = 5, 6, 7, 8 or 9 round up.

Rounding to Significant Figures

  • When rounding to significant figures, count from the first non-zero digit.

Abbreviations for Rounding

  • dp means 'decimal places' and
  • sf means 'significant figures'.

Multiplying by a Power of 10

  • Multiplying or dividing a number by a power of 10 changes the place value of each digit.
Place value and rounding in detail
Place value and rounding summary
  • When rounding: five or more rounds up, four or less rounds down.
  • For decimal places count from the decimal point.
  • For significant figures count from the first non-zero digit.
  • To multiply or divide by 10 use place value and move the digits one place to the right or left.
Place value and rounding summary
Adding and subtracting in detail

What is a directed number

  • A number with a plus or minus sign is a directed number. You can extend the basic rules of addition and subtraction to include negative numbers.

Basic Tricks for Adding and Subtracting

  • Adding a negative number counts as subtraction.
  • Subtracting a negative number counts as addition.
  • In partitioning you split the number into smaller parts.
  • In compensation you 'round' the number and include a correction.
  • Always use an estimate to check the result of a written calculation.
Adding and subtracting in detail
Adding and subtracting summary
  • Partitioning and compensation can be used to help you do calculations in your head.
  • An estimation should always be used to check an exact calculation.
  • Exact calculations can be done using written methods: use the decimal point to line up digits with the same place value.
Adding and subtracting summary
Multiplying and dividing in detail

Rules for Positive and Negative Numbers

  • Multiplying or dividing a positive number by a negative number gives a negative number.
  • Multiplying or dividing a negative number by a negative number gives a negative number.

Rules for Decimals

  • To multiply or divide decimals
    • estimate the answer
    • perform the arithmetic without decimal points
    • use the estimate to place the decimal point.

BIDMAS

  • The order of precedance for operations is given by BIDMAS:
    Brackets, Indices, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.
Multiplying and dividing in detail
Times Tables up to 12

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Times Tables up to 12
Times Tables up to 25

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Times Tables up to 25
Times Tables up to 40

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Times Tables up to 40
Multiplying positives and negatives

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Multiplying positives and negatives
What is the commutative property of multiplication?

Involving the conditions that a group of quantities connected by operators gives the same result whatever the order of the quantities involved, e.g. a×b=b×a.

What is the commutative property of multiplication?
Multiplying and dividing summary
  • Partitioning and factorisation can be used to help you do calculations in your head.
  • Exact calculations can be done using integer arithmetic.
  • An estimate should be used to check exact calculations and to place the decimal point.
Multiplying and dividing summary
Simplifying expressions in detail

What are like terms?

  • Collecting like terms and using the rules of algebraic notation lets you simplify expressions.
  • Like terms have the same letter or symbol.

Tips for Simplifying Expressions

  • By convention you write the coefficient first and then the variables in alphabetical order.
  • Be careful with the negative signs.
Simplifying expressions in detail
Examples of simplified expressions
  1. 4p+p+2pAnswer:7p
  2. 4a-3b+2a+5bAnswer:6a+2b
    Collect 'a' and 'b' terms separately
    4a+2a=6a  -3b+5b=2b
  3. 5x-2y-3+3xAnswer:8x-2y-3
    Collect 'x', 'y' and numbers seperately
    5x+3x=8x
  4. 3a+4+2yAnswer:This cannot be simplified.
Examples of simplified expressions
Simplifying expressions summary
  • Use algebraic notation to write expressions concisely and consistently.
  • Collect like terms to simplify an expression.
  • To evaluate an expression, replace the variables by the given numbers, restore any missing × signs and use the rules of arithmetic.
Simplifying expressions summary
Explain the difference between expanding and factorising brackets.
  • Expand means multiply each term inside a bracket by the term outside the bracket.
  • Factorising is the 'opposite' of expanding brackets. To factorise an expression, look for the highest common factor for all the terms.
Explain the difference between expanding and factorising brackets.
An example of expanding vs factorising brackets.

Factorising would be illustrated moving from the right expression to the left expression within the equation below. Expanding would be illustrated moving from the left expression to the right expression within the equation below.
2(x+4)=2x+8

An example of expanding vs factorising brackets.
More examples of expanding and factorising.
  1. 20x3-88xAnswer:4x(5x2-22)
  2. -24x-6Answer:-6(4x+1)
  3. 36+4xAnswer:4(9+x)
  4. 15x+5Answer:5(3x+1)
More examples of expanding and factorising.
How to change the subject of a formula where the subject appears on the same side twice.
  1. Isolate the subject on one side of the equation.
  2. Factorise subject out.
  3. Divide.
How to change the subject of a formula where the subject appears on the same side twice.
What is the Atomic Mass Unit?

Atomic Mass Unit (amu) is now called Unified atomic Mass. u = 1.660540x10-27kg

What is the Atomic Mass Unit?
Approximate mass of a proton, neutron and electron.

Both are approximately 1 u. A proton is ~1.007 u and a neutron is ≈1.008 u. An electron is approximately 1/2000 u.

Approximate mass of a proton, neutron and electron.
What makes up most of the mass of an atom?

The protons and neutrons in the nucleus as they are the heaviest.

What makes up most of the mass of an atom?
What is an isotope?

An isotope has the same number of protons as the element but different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei, and hence differ in relative atomic mass but not in chemical properties; in particular, a radioactive form of an element.

What is an isotope?
Atomic Number

Equal to the number of protons in an atom of the given element.

Atomic Number
Average Atomic Mass

On a periodic table it will be a weighted mass of all isotopes of an element. The most common isotope of Hydrogen in the universe (99.98% of hydrogen) has 1 proton, 0 neutron, 1 electron and so weighs 1.0075 u. (Proton ≈1.007u Electron ≈1/2000u)

Average Atomic Mass
Resources

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Resources